a client is receiving chemotherapy and is at risk for neutropenia which precaution should the nurse implement
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1. A client is receiving chemotherapy and is at risk for neutropenia. Which precaution should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Placing the client in a private room is crucial to protect them from infections due to their compromised immune system. Neutropenia, a common side effect of chemotherapy, decreases white blood cell count, making the client more susceptible to infections. By placing the client in a private room, exposure to pathogens from other individuals is minimized, reducing the risk of infection and helping maintain the client's health during this vulnerable period.

2. A 28-year-old woman presents with abdominal pain, diarrhea, and rectal bleeding. She has a history of similar episodes in the past. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The constellation of symptoms including abdominal pain, diarrhea, and rectal bleeding in a young woman with a history of similar episodes is highly suggestive of ulcerative colitis. This chronic inflammatory condition primarily affects the colon and rectum, leading to symptoms such as bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and urgency. The recurrent nature of her symptoms and the presence of rectal bleeding further support this diagnosis over other conditions listed, such as irritable bowel syndrome, celiac disease, or diverticulitis, which typically do not present with the same combination of symptoms and history.

3. A patient with chronic heart failure is prescribed furosemide. What is the primary action of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that acts by inhibiting sodium and chloride reabsorption in the loop of Henle, leading to increased diuresis. By reducing fluid retention, furosemide helps decrease the workload on the heart in patients with chronic heart failure. This medication does not directly increase cardiac output, decrease heart rate, or lower blood pressure as its primary action.

4. A 70-year-old man presents with weight loss, jaundice, and a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant. Laboratory tests reveal elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The presentation of a 70-year-old man with weight loss, jaundice, a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant, and elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels is highly suggestive of pancreatic cancer. This clinical scenario, known as Courvoisier's sign, points towards a pancreatic malignancy due to biliary obstruction. Gallstones could cause similar symptoms but would typically not present with a palpable mass. Hepatitis usually does not present with a palpable mass and would have different laboratory findings. Primary biliary cirrhosis typically presents differently with chronic cholestasis without the presence of a palpable mass or a pancreatic lesion.

5. While assessing a 70-year-old female client with Alzheimer's disease, the nurse notes deep inflamed cracks at the corners of her mouth. What intervention should the nurse include in this client's plan of care?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cracks at the corners of the mouth, known as angular cheilitis, can be a sign of vitamin B deficiency, specifically B2 (riboflavin) or B3 (niacin). The nurse should ensure that the client receives adequate B vitamins through foods rich in these nutrients or supplements to address the deficiency, which can help improve the condition of the client's mouth.

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