Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Avoid green leafy vegetables.
• B. Take aspirin for headaches.
• C. Use a soft-bristled toothbrush.
• D. Limit fluid intake to 1 liter per day.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client on warfarin therapy, especially with a history of DVT, is to use a soft-bristled toothbrush. This is crucial to prevent gum bleeding, which is a risk due to the anticoagulant effects of warfarin. Green leafy vegetables are rich in vitamin K, which can interfere with warfarin's effectiveness, so they should be consumed consistently to maintain a balance. Aspirin is not recommended for headaches in clients on warfarin due to the increased risk of bleeding. Limiting fluid intake is not a standard instruction for clients on warfarin therapy.

2. A patient with anemia is prescribed ferrous sulfate. What advice should the nurse give regarding the administration of this medication?

• A. Take with dairy products to increase absorption.
• B. Take on an empty stomach for best absorption.
• C. Avoid vitamin C while taking this medication.
• D. Take before bedtime.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct advice for the administration of ferrous sulfate is to take it on an empty stomach for best absorption. This enhances the absorption of iron. If gastrointestinal upset occurs, the medication can be taken with food. Taking ferrous sulfate with dairy products is not recommended as calcium can inhibit iron absorption. Taking it before bedtime is also not recommended. Vitamin C can actually help with the absorption of iron and is often recommended to be taken alongside iron supplements to enhance absorption. Therefore, avoiding vitamin C while taking ferrous sulfate is not correct.

3. The nurse is planning care for a 16-year-old with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA). The nurse includes activities to strengthen and mobilize the joints and surrounding muscles. Which physical therapy regimen should the nurse encourage the adolescent to implement?

• A. Exercise in a swimming pool.
• B. Splint affected joints during activity.
• C. Perform passive range of motion exercises twice daily.
• D. Begin a training program of lifting weights and running.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Exercising in a swimming pool is beneficial for adolescents with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis as it reduces stress on the joints while allowing movement and strengthening. The buoyancy of water supports the body, making exercises easier and less painful, while also providing resistance to strengthen muscles. This form of exercise can help improve joint mobility and overall function without causing excessive strain on the joints. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because splinting affected joints, performing passive range of motion exercises, or beginning a training program of lifting weights and running can potentially exacerbate symptoms and cause additional stress on the joints, which is not recommended for individuals with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis.

4. A client diagnosed with major depressive disorder refuses to get out of bed, eat, or participate in group therapy. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Offer the client high-calorie snacks and frequent small meals.
• B. Ask the client why they are not participating in therapy.
• C. Sit with the client and offer support without demanding participation.
• D. Encourage the client to discuss their feelings of hopelessness.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In cases of major depressive disorder where the client is non-participatory and withdrawn, sitting with the client and providing support without pressuring them to engage in activities like eating or therapy is crucial. This approach respects the client's current state, builds trust, and creates a supportive environment that can eventually lead to the client opening up and accepting help.

5. The client has received 250 ml of 0.9% normal saline through the IV line in the last hour. The client is now tachypneic and has a pulse rate of 120 beats/minute, with a pulse volume of +4. In addition to reporting the assessment findings to the healthcare provider, what action should the nurse implement?

• A. Discontinue the IV and apply pressure at the site.
• B. Decrease the saline to a keep-open rate.
• C. Increase the rate of the current IV solution.
• D. Change the IV fluid to 0.45% normal saline at the same rate.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is showing signs of fluid overload with tachypnea and a high pulse rate. Decreasing the saline to a keep-open rate is appropriate to prevent further fluid volume excess. This action allows for IV access to be maintained while reducing the fluid administered, helping to manage the symptoms of fluid overload.

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