Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Avoid green leafy vegetables.
• B. Take aspirin for headaches.
• C. Use a soft-bristled toothbrush.
• D. Limit fluid intake to 1 liter per day.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client on warfarin therapy, especially with a history of DVT, is to use a soft-bristled toothbrush. This is crucial to prevent gum bleeding, which is a risk due to the anticoagulant effects of warfarin. Green leafy vegetables are rich in vitamin K, which can interfere with warfarin's effectiveness, so they should be consumed consistently to maintain a balance. Aspirin is not recommended for headaches in clients on warfarin due to the increased risk of bleeding. Limiting fluid intake is not a standard instruction for clients on warfarin therapy.

2. A patient with rheumatoid arthritis is taking prednisone. What is an important side effect for the nurse to monitor?

• A. Hyperglycemia
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Hypotension
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is hyperglycemia. Prednisone, a corticosteroid, can lead to elevated blood sugar levels as a side effect, particularly in patients with diabetes or those predisposed to developing diabetes. Monitoring for hyperglycemia is crucial to prevent complications like diabetic ketoacidosis and hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome.

3. A client with severe anemia is being treated with a blood transfusion. Which assessment finding indicates a transfusion reaction?

• A. Elevated blood pressure.
• B. Fever and chills.
• C. Increased urine output.
• D. Bradycardia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Fever and chills are classic signs of a transfusion reaction. These symptoms indicate that the body is having a response to the transfused blood, possibly due to incompatibility or an immune reaction. Elevated blood pressure (choice A) is not a typical sign of a transfusion reaction. Increased urine output (choice C) and bradycardia (choice D) are also not characteristic signs of a transfusion reaction. It is crucial to recognize symptoms of a transfusion reaction promptly to prevent further complications and ensure appropriate management.

4. The healthcare provider in the outpatient clinic has obtained health histories for these new patients. Which patient may need referral for genetic testing?

• A. 35-year-old patient whose maternal grandparents died after strokes at ages 90 and 96
• B. 18-year-old patient with a positive pregnancy test whose first child has cerebral palsy
• C. 34-year-old patient who has a sibling with newly diagnosed polycystic kidney disease
• D. 50-year-old patient with a history of cigarette smoking who is complaining of dyspnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The 34-year-old patient who has a sibling with newly diagnosed polycystic kidney disease may need referral for genetic testing. Polycystic kidney disease is an autosomal dominant disorder that can be asymptomatic until later in life. Presymptomatic testing can provide valuable information for guiding lifestyle and family planning decisions. The other patients do not present indications for genetic testing based on the information provided in their health histories. The 35-year-old patient's maternal grandparents' strokes are not indicative of a need for genetic testing. The 18-year-old patient's child having cerebral palsy is not a direct indication for genetic testing of the patient herself. The 50-year-old patient's symptoms are more likely related to smoking and respiratory issues, not genetic predisposition to a specific disease.

5. A 28-year-old woman at 34 weeks of gestation presents with elevated liver enzymes and pruritus. Labs reveal total bilirubin to be 4.2 mg/dL, AST 480 U/L, ALT 640 U/L, and alkaline phosphatase 232 U/L. Viral hepatitis serologies and ANA are negative. On physical examination, she is jaundiced, but has a normal blood pressure, no edema, and a soft abdomen. The fetus is in no distress. Which of the following is true?

• A. The baby should be delivered immediately
• B. Symptoms will resolve promptly after delivery
• C. There is little risk of recurrence with subsequent pregnancies
• D. The mother should be screened for long-chain 3-hydroxyacyl-CoA dehydrogenase (LCHAD) deficiency

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's presentation is consistent with intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy (ICP), a condition characterized by elevated liver enzymes, pruritus, and jaundice in the absence of other liver disease causes. ICP typically resolves promptly after delivery. Immediate delivery is indicated only for fetal distress, not maternal symptoms. ICP does have a significant risk of recurrence in subsequent pregnancies. Treatment options for ICP include cholestyramine and ursodeoxycholic acid. Screening for long-chain 3-hydroxyacyl-CoA dehydrogenase (LCHAD) deficiency is not indicated in this context as it is associated with acute fatty liver of pregnancy and HELLP syndrome, not ICP.

Similar Questions