a client with a history of deep vein thrombosis dvt is receiving warfarin coumadin which instruction should the nurse provide
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1. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which instruction should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client on warfarin therapy, especially with a history of DVT, is to use a soft-bristled toothbrush. This is crucial to prevent gum bleeding, which is a risk due to the anticoagulant effects of warfarin. Green leafy vegetables are rich in vitamin K, which can interfere with warfarin's effectiveness, so they should be consumed consistently to maintain a balance. Aspirin is not recommended for headaches in clients on warfarin due to the increased risk of bleeding. Limiting fluid intake is not a standard instruction for clients on warfarin therapy.

2. A client with liver cirrhosis is prescribed lactulose. What is the purpose of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Lactulose is prescribed to reduce ammonia levels in clients with liver cirrhosis. Elevated ammonia levels can lead to hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication of liver cirrhosis. Lactulose works by acidifying the colon, which in turn traps ammonia in the colon and helps its elimination from the body through stool, thereby reducing the risk of hepatic encephalopathy. Choice A is incorrect because lactulose does not lower blood sugar levels. Choice C is incorrect as lactulose is not used to treat liver inflammation. Choice D is incorrect as lactulose does not improve bile flow.

3. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a chest tube. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Crepitus (subcutaneous emphysema) around the insertion site can indicate air leakage, requiring immediate intervention to prevent complications such as pneumothorax. This assessment finding suggests that there may be a break in the chest tube system, leading to air entering the pleural space. Prompt intervention is crucial to prevent respiratory compromise and further complications.

4. A patient with chronic heart failure is prescribed carvedilol. What is the primary purpose of this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Carvedilol, a beta-blocker, is primarily prescribed in patients with chronic heart failure to decrease heart rate and reduce the workload on the heart. By lowering the heart rate, carvedilol helps the heart function more efficiently and improves symptoms in patients with heart failure.

5. A 32-year-old woman presents with a 10-month history of an intermittent burning sensation in the epigastrium that is sometimes related to eating. She has heard about bacteria that can cause gastrointestinal (GI) symptoms. She has had no change in her weight and denies dysphagia. Her laboratory tests are normal. Which of the following would you recommend?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The patient presents with dyspepsia, described as an intermittent burning sensation in the epigastrium, sometimes related to eating. In individuals under 45 years without warning signs such as anemia, weight loss, or dysphagia, a serum qualitative test for H. pylori is recommended to document H. pylori infection, especially if the patient has not been previously treated. It's important to note that a serum IgG can remain positive post-eradication. If H. pylori-positive patients do not respond to treatment, an endoscopy would be the next step for evaluation. An upper GI series is less sensitive than endoscopy in detecting lesions of the upper GI tract and cannot specifically detect H. pylori. Empiric therapy for H. pylori without confirmation is not recommended.

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