Nursing Elites

1. The sister of a patient diagnosed with BRCA gene-related breast cancer asks the nurse, 'Do you think I should be tested for the gene?' Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. In most cases, breast cancer is not caused by the BRCA gene.
• B. It depends on how you will feel if the test is positive for the BRCA gene.
• C. There are many things to consider before deciding to have genetic testing.
• D. You should decide first whether you are willing to have a bilateral mastectomy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate response by the nurse is C: 'There are many things to consider before deciding to have genetic testing.' Genetic testing for BRCA gene mutations is a complex decision that involves various factors such as emotional readiness, potential impact on insurance and employability, and the implications of test results. Option A is incorrect because although most breast cancers are not related to BRCA gene mutations, individuals with these mutations have a significantly higher risk. Option B is not ideal as it oversimplifies the decision-making process by focusing solely on emotional aspects. Option D is incorrect as it implies a predetermined course of action (mastectomy) before even undergoing genetic testing, which is not appropriate.

2. A client with hypothyroidism is prescribed levothyroxine (Synthroid). Which instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Take the medication with a meal.
• B. Take the medication at bedtime.
• C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• D. Take the medication with an antacid.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed levothyroxine (Synthroid) is to take the medication on an empty stomach. This ensures optimal absorption of levothyroxine. Taking it with a meal can interfere with absorption due to food interactions. Taking it at bedtime may lead to inconsistent absorption as it should be taken at the same time every day in the morning. Taking it with an antacid can reduce the absorption of levothyroxine, making it less effective.

3. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with Guillain-Barré syndrome. Which assessment finding requires the healthcare provider's immediate action?

• A. Loss of deep tendon reflexes.
• B. Ascending weakness.
• C. New onset of confusion.
• D. Decreased vital capacity.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Decreased vital capacity is the most critical assessment finding in a client with Guillain-Barré syndrome as it indicates respiratory compromise. This requires immediate intervention to ensure adequate ventilation and prevent respiratory failure, a common complication of this syndrome. Monitoring and maintaining respiratory function are vital in these clients to prevent complications such as respiratory distress, hypoxia, and respiratory failure. Loss of deep tendon reflexes and ascending weakness are typical manifestations of Guillain-Barré syndrome but do not require immediate action compared to compromised respiratory function. New onset of confusion may be a concern but is not as immediately life-threatening as decreased vital capacity.

4. A 28-year-old woman presents with abdominal pain, bloating, and diarrhea. She notes that her symptoms improve with fasting. She has a history of iron deficiency anemia. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Irritable bowel syndrome
• B. Celiac disease
• C. Lactose intolerance
• D. Crohn's disease

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The symptoms of abdominal pain, bloating, diarrhea improving with fasting, and a history of iron deficiency anemia are characteristic of celiac disease. Celiac disease is an autoimmune disorder triggered by gluten consumption, leading to damage in the small intestine. The improvement with fasting may be due to the temporary avoidance of gluten-containing foods. Irritable bowel syndrome, lactose intolerance, and Crohn's disease do not typically present with improvement of symptoms with fasting or have a clear association with iron deficiency anemia.

5. A 35-year-old male patient presents with right upper quadrant pain, fever for the past 48 hours, preceded by new onset jaundice over the past few weeks. He states that he has had diarrhea on and off for several years but never had this investigated. A liver ultrasound is negative for gallstones or evidence of cholecystitis. His lab tests reveal total bilirubin 6.2, alkaline phosphatase 450, AST 150, ALT 120, albumin 2.6. The next diagnostic test of choice would be

• A. Liver biopsy
• B. Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography
• C. Hepatitis B surface antigen and hepatitis C RNA assay
• D. Colonoscopy with biopsies

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's presentation with right upper quadrant pain, fever, and jaundice, along with abnormal liver function tests, suggests a biliary tract problem. Given the suspicion of obstructed bile flow and the negative liver ultrasound for gallstones, magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP) is the next appropriate step to evaluate the biliary system and pancreatic ducts. MRCP is non-invasive and can provide detailed images for diagnosis. Liver biopsy is not the preferred initial diagnostic test in this context. Testing for hepatitis B and C would not address the current clinical scenario, and colonoscopy is not indicated for the presenting symptoms.

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