Nursing Elites

1. A 32-year-old woman presents with a 10-month history of an intermittent burning sensation in the epigastrium that is sometimes related to eating. She has heard about bacteria that can cause gastrointestinal (GI) symptoms. She has had no change in her weight and denies dysphagia. Her laboratory tests are normal. Which of the following would you recommend?

• A. Serum qualitative test for H. pylori
• B. Refer for endoscopy
• C. Obtain an upper GI series
• D. Treat her for H. pylori infection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The patient presents with dyspepsia, described as an intermittent burning sensation in the epigastrium, sometimes related to eating. In individuals under 45 years without warning signs such as anemia, weight loss, or dysphagia, a serum qualitative test for H. pylori is recommended to document H. pylori infection, especially if the patient has not been previously treated. It's important to note that a serum IgG can remain positive post-eradication. If H. pylori-positive patients do not respond to treatment, an endoscopy would be the next step for evaluation. An upper GI series is less sensitive than endoscopy in detecting lesions of the upper GI tract and cannot specifically detect H. pylori. Empiric therapy for H. pylori without confirmation is not recommended.

2. A 60-year-old man presents with fatigue, polyuria, and polydipsia. Laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and ketonuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
• B. Type 2 diabetes mellitus
• C. Diabetes insipidus
• D. Hyperthyroidism

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The presentation of a 60-year-old man with fatigue, polyuria, polydipsia, hyperglycemia, and ketonuria strongly suggests type 1 diabetes mellitus. Type 1 diabetes typically presents with acute symptoms due to absolute insulin deficiency, leading to hyperglycemia and ketonuria. Conversely, type 2 diabetes often presents more insidiously and is associated with relative insulin deficiency and insulin resistance. Diabetes insipidus, a condition characterized by excessive thirst and excretion of large amounts of dilute urine, is due to problems with antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and is not associated with hyperglycemia or ketonuria. Hyperthyroidism, while also presenting with symptoms like fatigue, does not typically manifest with hyperglycemia or ketonuria. Therefore, based on the clinical presentation and laboratory findings, the most likely diagnosis in this case is type 1 diabetes mellitus.

3. A client diagnosed with major depressive disorder refuses to get out of bed, eat, or participate in group therapy. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Offer the client high-calorie snacks and frequent small meals.
• B. Ask the client why they are not participating in therapy.
• C. Sit with the client and offer support without demanding participation.
• D. Encourage the client to discuss their feelings of hopelessness.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In cases of major depressive disorder where the client is non-participatory and withdrawn, sitting with the client and providing support without pressuring them to engage in activities like eating or therapy is crucial. This approach respects the client's current state, builds trust, and creates a supportive environment that can eventually lead to the client opening up and accepting help.

4. A 55-year-old man presents with fatigue, pruritus, and jaundice. Laboratory tests reveal elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels. Imaging shows dilated intrahepatic bile ducts and a normal common bile duct. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Primary biliary cirrhosis
• B. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
• C. Gallstones
• D. Pancreatic cancer

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The constellation of symptoms including fatigue, pruritus, and jaundice, along with elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels, and imaging findings of dilated intrahepatic bile ducts and a normal common bile duct, are classical features of primary biliary cirrhosis.

5. A client with chronic pain is prescribed a fentanyl (Duragesic) patch. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client?

• A. Apply the patch to a clean, dry, and hairless area of the skin.
• B. Use a heating pad over the patch to enhance absorption.
• C. Change the patch daily to maintain effectiveness.
• D. Place the patch on the same site with each application.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for applying a fentanyl (Duragesic) patch is to place it on a clean, dry, and hairless area of the skin. This ensures proper adhesion of the patch and optimal absorption of the medication. Using a heating pad over the patch is contraindicated as it can increase drug absorption and lead to overdose. Changing the patch daily is necessary for some medications, but fentanyl patches are usually changed every 72 hours to maintain a steady blood level of the medication. Placing the patch on the same site with each application can lead to skin irritation, uneven drug absorption, and should be avoided to allow the skin to recover between applications.

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