a patient with a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis dvt is receiving heparin therapy which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the eff
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ATI Learning System PN Medical Surgical Final Quizlet

1. A patient with a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the heparin therapy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Partial thromboplastin time (PTT). Heparin affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, which is reflected by changes in the PTT. Monitoring the PTT helps ensure that the patient's blood is within the desired therapeutic range and prevents complications related to clotting or bleeding. Prothrombin time (PT) primarily assesses the extrinsic pathway and is not as sensitive to heparin therapy. Bleeding time and platelet count are not specific tests for monitoring the effectiveness of heparin therapy in DVT.

2. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents with increasing shortness of breath. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 88% indicates hypoxemia, which is a critical finding in a client with COPD. Hypoxemia can lead to serious complications and may require immediate intervention, such as adjusting oxygen therapy to improve oxygenation levels and prevent further respiratory distress. Monitoring and maintaining adequate oxygen saturation is crucial in managing COPD exacerbations and preventing respiratory failure.

3. The healthcare provider is providing care to a client with a tracheostomy. Which action should the healthcare provider take to prevent tracheostomy complications?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Using sterile technique when performing tracheostomy care is essential to prevent infections and other complications. Proper sterile technique helps reduce the risk of introducing harmful bacteria into the tracheostomy site, which can lead to infections and other serious issues. By maintaining a sterile environment during tracheostomy care, the healthcare provider can promote healing and prevent potential complications.

4. The nurse is administering sevelamer (RenaGel) during lunch to a client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD). The client asks the nurse to bring the medication later. The nurse should describe which action of RenaGel as an explanation for taking it with meals?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Sevelamer (RenaGel) binds with phosphorus in foods to prevent its absorption, which is why it should be taken with meals. By taking RenaGel with meals, it can effectively bind with phosphorus from food, reducing the amount of phosphorus absorbed by the body, thus helping to manage hyperphosphatemia in clients with ESRD. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because RenaGel's primary action is to bind with phosphorus in foods, not related to preventing indigestion, promoting stomach emptying, or buffering hydrochloric acid.

5. The healthcare provider is caring for a client who has just undergone a thyroidectomy. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Numbness and tingling around the mouth can indicate hypocalcemia, a potential complication after thyroidectomy. Hypocalcemia can occur due to inadvertent injury or removal of the parathyroid glands during the thyroidectomy, leading to decreased calcium levels. As a result, the client may experience symptoms such as numbness, tingling, muscle cramps, or spasms. Prompt intervention is necessary to prevent severe complications like tetany or seizures. Therefore, the healthcare provider should address numbness and tingling around the mouth immediately to prevent further deterioration of calcium levels and potential serious outcomes. Choices A, B, and D are not typically associated with immediate post-thyroidectomy complications and can be addressed after ensuring the client's calcium levels are stable.

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