a patient with a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis dvt is receiving heparin therapy which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the eff
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ATI Learning System PN Medical Surgical Final Quizlet

1. A patient with a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the heparin therapy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Partial thromboplastin time (PTT). Heparin affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, which is reflected by changes in the PTT. Monitoring the PTT helps ensure that the patient's blood is within the desired therapeutic range and prevents complications related to clotting or bleeding. Prothrombin time (PT) primarily assesses the extrinsic pathway and is not as sensitive to heparin therapy. Bleeding time and platelet count are not specific tests for monitoring the effectiveness of heparin therapy in DVT.

2. The nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of 'High risk for ineffective airway clearance' for a client with myasthenia gravis. What is the most likely etiology for this nursing diagnosis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Diminished cough effort. Clients with myasthenia gravis often experience muscle weakness, including respiratory muscles, which can lead to diminished cough effort. This weakness can result in ineffective airway clearance, putting the client at a high risk. Pain when coughing (choice A) is not directly related to the etiology of ineffective airway clearance in myasthenia gravis. While thick, dry secretions (choice C) and excessive inflammation (choice D) can contribute to airway clearance issues, the primary concern in myasthenia gravis is the muscle weakness affecting cough effort.

3. A client is being treated with an antidepressant for major depressive disorder. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C indicates a need for further teaching because stopping antidepressants abruptly can lead to withdrawal symptoms. It is essential for the client to follow the healthcare provider's instructions and complete the full course of medication even if they start feeling better to prevent potential relapse or withdrawal effects.

4. When assessing a male client who is receiving a unit of packed red blood cells (PRBCs), the nurse notes that the infusion was started 30 minutes ago, and 50 ml of blood is left to be infused. The client's vital signs are within normal limits. He reports feeling 'out of breath' but denies any other complaints. What action should the nurse take at this time?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing symptoms of shortness of breath, which could indicate fluid overload from the PRBC transfusion. By decreasing the intravenous flow rate of the transfusion, the nurse can slow down the rate of blood being infused, potentially alleviating the symptoms of fluid overload and shortness of breath. This intervention can help prevent further complications and promote the client's comfort and safety.

5. A client with chronic renal failure is scheduled to receive epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which laboratory result should the nurse review before administering the medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to review the hemoglobin level before administering epoetin alfa (Epogen) to assess its effectiveness in stimulating red blood cell production. Hemoglobin level is a crucial indicator to monitor in clients with chronic renal failure receiving this medication. Choice A (Blood urea nitrogen) and Choice B (Creatinine clearance) are commonly monitored in renal failure but are not specifically relevant to assessing the effectiveness of epoetin alfa. Choice D (Serum potassium) is important to monitor due to potential imbalances in renal failure, but it is not directly related to evaluating the effectiveness of epoetin alfa.

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