Nursing Elites

1. A 10-year-old child is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis. The nurse notes that the child has edema and elevated blood pressure. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Administer antihypertensive medication as prescribed
• B. Monitor the child’s urine output
• C. Elevate the child’s legs to reduce edema
• D. Restrict the child’s fluid intake

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a child with acute glomerulonephritis presenting with edema and elevated blood pressure, the priority action for the nurse is to administer antihypertensive medication as prescribed. Managing blood pressure is essential to prevent further complications associated with the condition, such as worsening kidney function and cardiovascular strain. Monitoring urine output is important but not the priority over managing elevated blood pressure. Elevating the child's legs may help with edema but addressing the elevated blood pressure takes precedence. Fluid intake restriction may be necessary in some cases, but it is not the immediate priority when managing acute glomerulonephritis with edema and hypertension.

2. A 5-year-old child with leukemia is receiving chemotherapy. The nurse notes that the child’s white blood cell count is low. What is the nurse’s priority intervention?

• A. Administer antibiotics as prescribed
• B. Place the child in protective isolation
• C. Encourage the child to eat a balanced diet
• D. Teach the parents about infection prevention

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority intervention for a 5-year-old child with leukemia receiving chemotherapy and having a low white blood cell count is to place the child in protective isolation. This intervention helps reduce the risk of infection, which is crucial in this immunocompromised state. Protective isolation aims to limit the child's exposure to pathogens and promote their safety during a period of increased vulnerability to infections.

3. When should the surgical correction of hypospadias in a newborn infant typically be done?

• A. Repair should be done by one month to prevent bladder infection.
• B. To form a proper urethra repair, it should be done after sexual maturity.
• C. Repairs typically should be done before the child is potty trained.
• D. Delaying the repair until school age reduces castration fears.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Surgical repairs for hypospadias are typically recommended to be performed before the child is potty trained. This timing helps in avoiding complications, ensures better outcomes, and makes the surgical process smoother. Early correction also minimizes the psychological impact on the child regarding genital differences and can improve long-term psychological well-being. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because repairing hypospadias at one month to prevent bladder infection, after sexual maturity to form a proper urethra, or delaying the repair until school age to reduce castration fears are not the standard recommendations. The optimal timing for surgical correction is before the child is potty trained to achieve the best results and psychological outcomes.

4. A 9-year-old child with a history of type 1 diabetes is brought to the clinic for a check-up. The nurse notes that the child's hemoglobin A1c is 8.5%. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?

• A. Increase the child’s insulin dose
• B. Review the child’s dietary habits and insulin administration technique
• C. Discuss the possibility of switching to oral hypoglycemics
• D. Schedule a follow-up appointment in three months

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A hemoglobin A1c of 8.5% indicates suboptimal diabetes control. The most appropriate action for the nurse in this scenario is to review the child’s dietary habits and insulin administration technique. This approach can help identify potential areas for improvement and optimize diabetes management, aiming to lower the hemoglobin A1c levels towards the target range. Increasing the child’s insulin dose (Choice A) without addressing dietary habits and administration technique may not lead to better control and can increase the risk of hypoglycemia. Switching to oral hypoglycemics (Choice C) is not appropriate for type 1 diabetes management. Scheduling a follow-up appointment in three months (Choice D) without intervening to improve diabetes control is not the best immediate action.

5. A 7-year-old is admitted to the hospital with persistent vomiting, and a nasogastric tube attached to low intermittent suction is applied. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Gastric output of 100 mL in the last 8 hours.
• B. Shift intake of 640 mL IV fluids plus 30 mL PO ice chips.
• C. Serum potassium of 3.0 mEq/L.
• D. Serum pH of 7.45.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L is significantly low and indicates hypokalemia, which can lead to serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to report this finding promptly to the healthcare provider for immediate intervention. The other findings are not as critical in this situation. Gastric output of 100 mL in the last 8 hours may be expected in a patient with persistent vomiting. The shift intake of IV fluids and ice chips indicates fluid replacement, which is important but not as urgent as correcting electrolyte imbalances. A serum pH of 7.45 is within the normal range and does not indicate an immediate concern.

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