a nurse is planning care for a client who has a seizure disorder and a new prescription for valproic acid which of the following laboratory values sho
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ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A

1. A client with a seizure disorder has a new prescription for valproic acid. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse plan to monitor? (Select all that apply)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'All of the Above.' Valproic acid can impact liver function and coagulation. Monitoring the Prothrombin Time (PTT), Aspartate Aminotransferase (AST), and Alanine Aminotransferase (ALT) is crucial. PTT is monitored to assess coagulation status, while AST and ALT are liver enzymes that indicate liver function. Monitoring these values helps detect any potential adverse effects of valproic acid on the liver and blood clotting. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of these laboratory values plays a critical role in evaluating the client's response to valproic acid therapy and detecting associated complications.

2. A client with gout is prescribed allopurinol. The nurse should instruct the client to discontinue taking the medication for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fever. Fever can indicate a serious hypersensitivity reaction to allopurinol, known as allopurinol hypersensitivity syndrome, which can be severe and even life-threatening. Nausea and drowsiness are common side effects of allopurinol but not necessarily indications to discontinue the medication. Metallic taste is not typically associated with allopurinol use. Therefore, the nurse should emphasize to the client the importance of reporting any signs of fever promptly for further evaluation and management.

3. A client is receiving IV gentamicin three times daily. Which of the following findings indicates that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Proteinuria. Proteinuria can indicate nephrotoxicity, a known adverse effect of gentamicin. Gentamicin is known to cause kidney damage, leading to proteinuria. Hypoglycemia is not typically associated with gentamicin use but may be related to insulin administration or other medical conditions. Nasal congestion is not a common adverse effect of gentamicin. Visual disturbances are also not typically reported with gentamicin use.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of oral candidiasis after taking tetracycline for 7 days. The nurse should recognize that candidiasis is a manifestation of which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Candidiasis is a type of superinfection that can occur when antibiotics, like tetracycline, disrupt the normal flora, allowing overgrowth of fungi. Option A, allergic response, is incorrect because candidiasis is not typically an allergic reaction. Option C, renal toxicity, and option D, hepatotoxicity, are incorrect as they refer to adverse effects on the kidneys and liver, respectively, which are not directly related to the development of candidiasis.

5. A nurse is preparing to administer ampicillin 500 mg in 50 ml of dextrose 5% in water (D5W) to infuse over 15 min. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. How many gtt/min should the nurse set the manual IV infusion to deliver? (Round to the nearest whole number)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the IV flow rate, you multiply the drop factor (10 gtt/mL) by the volume to be infused per minute (50 mL / 15 min). This gives you 10 gtt/mL × 50 mL / 15 min = 33.33. Rounding to the nearest whole number, the nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver 33 gtt/min. Choice B (66 gtt/min) is incorrect as it is the result of doubling the correct answer. Choice C (10 gtt/min) is incorrect as it only considers the drop factor without accounting for the volume to be infused. Choice D (14 gtt/min) is incorrect as it miscalculates the infusion rate based on the given information.

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