a nurse is planning care for a client who has a seizure disorder and a new prescription for valproic acid which of the following laboratory values sho
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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A

1. A client with a seizure disorder has a new prescription for valproic acid. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse plan to monitor? (Select all that apply)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'All of the Above.' Valproic acid can impact liver function and coagulation. Monitoring the Prothrombin Time (PTT), Aspartate Aminotransferase (AST), and Alanine Aminotransferase (ALT) is crucial. PTT is monitored to assess coagulation status, while AST and ALT are liver enzymes that indicate liver function. Monitoring these values helps detect any potential adverse effects of valproic acid on the liver and blood clotting. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of these laboratory values plays a critical role in evaluating the client's response to valproic acid therapy and detecting associated complications.

2. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results for a client who has a prescription for filgrastim. The healthcare professional should recognize that an increase in which of the following values indicates a therapeutic effect of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Filgrastim is a medication used to stimulate the production of neutrophils in patients with neutropenia. Neutrophils are a type of white blood cell that plays a crucial role in fighting off infections. Therefore, an increase in neutrophil count would indicate a therapeutic effect of filgrastim. The other options, such as erythrocyte count (red blood cells), lymphocyte count, and thrombocyte count (platelets), are not directly affected by filgrastim and would not indicate a therapeutic effect of this medication.

3. A client with peptic ulcer disease reports a headache. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acetaminophen is the preferred analgesic for clients with peptic ulcer disease because it does not cause gastrointestinal irritation, unlike Ibuprofen, Naproxen, and Aspirin, which can exacerbate peptic ulcer symptoms and lead to gastrointestinal complications.

4. A nurse in an outpatient facility is assessing a client who is prescribed furosemide 40 mg daily, but the client reports she has been taking extra doses to promote weight loss. Which of the following indicates she is dehydrated?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Urine specific gravity of 1.035. A urine specific gravity greater than 1.030 indicates dehydration as the kidneys conserve water in response to dehydration. Choice B, oliguria, refers to decreased urine output, which can be a sign of dehydration but is not specific to it. Choice C, increased urine concentration, is a general term and does not directly indicate dehydration. Choice D, dry mucous membranes, can be a sign of dehydration but is not as specific as a urine specific gravity greater than 1.030.

5. A nurse is providing teaching to a parent of a child who has asthma and a new prescription for a cromolyn sodium metered dose inhaler. Which of the following statements by the parent indicates the need for further teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Cromolyn sodium is a preventive medication and should not be used as a rescue inhaler when wheezing starts. This indicates a need for further teaching as the parent should understand that cromolyn sodium is not meant for immediate relief of symptoms. Choice B is correct as rinsing the mouth after using the inhaler helps reduce the risk of oral thrush, a common side effect. Choice C is correct as exhaling completely before using the inhaler helps ensure proper inhalation of the medication. Choice D is correct as a spacer can be used if the child has difficulty coordinating breathing with the inhaler, improving medication delivery.

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