a nurse is caring for an older adult client who has a new prescription for amitriptyline to treat depression which of the following diagnostic tests s
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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A

1. A nurse is caring for an older adult client who has a new prescription for amitriptyline to treat depression. Which of the following diagnostic tests should the nurse plan to perform prior to starting the client on this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Electrocardiogram. Amitriptyline can cause cardiac arrhythmias, so an electrocardiogram is necessary before starting treatment. A hearing examination (choice A) is not required before initiating amitriptyline. A glucose tolerance test (choice B) is not indicated for starting this medication. Pulmonary function tests (choice D) are not necessary before initiating amitriptyline for depression.

2. A healthcare professional is planning to administer diltiazem via IV bolus to a client who has atrial fibrillation. When assessing the client, the healthcare professional should recognize that which of the following findings is a contraindication to the administration of diltiazem?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker, can cause hypotension. Administering it to a client who already has hypotension could exacerbate this condition. Therefore, hypotension is a contraindication to the administration of diltiazem. Incorrect Choices: B) Tachycardia is not a contraindication for administering diltiazem in atrial fibrillation as it is commonly used to control the heart rate. C) Decreased level of consciousness may require evaluation but is not a direct contraindication to diltiazem administration. D) History of diuretic use is not a contraindication if the client is not currently experiencing hypotension.

3. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has cirrhosis and a new prescription for lactulose. The nurse should instruct the client that lactulose has which of the following therapeutic effects?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reduces ammonia levels. Lactulose is used to reduce blood ammonia levels in clients with hepatic encephalopathy. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because lactulose does not have the therapeutic effect of increasing blood pressure, preventing esophageal bleeding, or decreasing heart rate.

4. A client with peptic ulcer disease reports a headache. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acetaminophen is the preferred analgesic for clients with peptic ulcer disease because it does not cause gastrointestinal irritation, unlike Ibuprofen, Naproxen, and Aspirin, which can exacerbate peptic ulcer symptoms and lead to gastrointestinal complications.

5. A nurse is preparing to administer prochlorperazine 2.5 mg IV. Available is prochlorperazine injection 5 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the mL needed, set up a proportion: 5 mg / 1 mL = 2.5 mg / X mL. Cross multiply to find X: 5 * X = 2.5 * 1, X = 2.5 / 5 = 0.5 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 0.5 mL. Choice B, 0.005 mL, is incorrect as it doesn't match the calculated result. Choice C, 0.05 mL, is incorrect as it is ten times the correct value. Choice D, 5 mL, is incorrect as it represents the total volume of the entire vial, not the amount needed for the specific dose.

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