a nurse is administering subcutaneous heparin to a client who is at risk for deep vein thrombosis which of the following actions should the nurse take
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A

1. A nurse is administering subcutaneous heparin to a client who is at risk for deep vein thrombosis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Heparin is best absorbed and less likely to cause hematomas when administered into subcutaneous tissue, specifically the abdomen, which is a common site for subcutaneous injections. Injecting heparin into a muscle (Choice B) is incorrect as it should be administered subcutaneously. Massaging the site after administering the medication (Choice C) is contraindicated as it can cause tissue damage or bruising. Using a 22-gauge needle (Choice D) is not recommended for subcutaneous injections of heparin; a smaller needle size such as 25-26 gauge is preferred for subcutaneous administration.

2. A client with ulcerative colitis has been prescribed sulfasalazine. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Jaundice. Sulfasalazine can cause liver damage as a possible adverse effect, which can manifest as jaundice. Monitoring for jaundice is crucial to detect liver-related adverse effects early. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Constipation, oral candidiasis, and sedation are not typically associated with sulfasalazine use. Therefore, the nurse should focus on educating the client specifically about monitoring for jaundice.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer prochlorperazine 2.5 mg IV. Available is prochlorperazine injection 5 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the mL needed, set up a proportion: 5 mg / 1 mL = 2.5 mg / X mL. Cross multiply to find X: 5 * X = 2.5 * 1, X = 2.5 / 5 = 0.5 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 0.5 mL. Choice B, 0.005 mL, is incorrect as it doesn't match the calculated result. Choice C, 0.05 mL, is incorrect as it is ten times the correct value. Choice D, 5 mL, is incorrect as it represents the total volume of the entire vial, not the amount needed for the specific dose.

4. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed long-term prednisone therapy. What adverse effect should the client monitor for according to the nurse's instruction?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Stress fractures. Long-term prednisone therapy can lead to osteoporosis, which increases the risk of stress fractures. Option B, orthostatic hypotension, is not a common adverse effect associated with prednisone use. Option C, gingival ulcerations, is more commonly associated with conditions like periodontal disease or poor oral hygiene rather than prednisone therapy. Option D, weight loss, is not a typical adverse effect of prednisone; in fact, weight gain is more common due to prednisone's impact on metabolism.

5. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values for a client who is receiving a continuous IV heparin infusion and has an aPTT of 90 seconds. Which of the following actions should the nurse prepare to take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An aPTT of 90 seconds is elevated, indicating a risk of bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation. The appropriate action is to reduce the infusion rate of heparin to prevent further complications. Administering vitamin K is not indicated for an elevated aPTT due to heparin therapy. Giving the client a low-dose aspirin can further increase the risk of bleeding when combined with heparin. Requesting an INR is not necessary for monitoring heparin therapy; aPTT is the more specific test for assessing heparin's therapeutic effect. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to prepare to take is to reduce the infusion rate of heparin.

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