Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over the course of 30 min. After maintaining the client’s airway and turning the client on their side, which of the following medications should the nurse administer?

• A. Diazepam IV
• B. Lorazepam PO
• C. Diltiazem IV
• D. Clonazepam PO

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario of a client experiencing prolonged seizures, such as status epilepticus, the priority is to administer a benzodiazepine to stop the seizure activity. Diazepam is the medication of choice for this situation due to its rapid onset of action and effectiveness in terminating seizures quickly. Lorazepam, although another benzodiazepine, is typically given through routes other than oral (PO) administration in emergency situations. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker used for cardiac conditions, not for seizure management. Clonazepam is a benzodiazepine, but it is usually not the first choice in the acute management of status epilepticus.

2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who is postop following abdominal surgery. Which of the following behaviors should the nurse identify as increasing the client's risk for complications?

• A. Walking twice daily
• B. Suppression of the urge to cough
• C. Suppression of the urge to defecate
• D. Lack of ambulation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Suppression of the urge to defecate postoperatively can lead to complications such as constipation, which can increase the risk of complications after abdominal surgery. Walking twice daily (choice A) is actually beneficial for preventing complications such as deep vein thrombosis. Suppression of the urge to cough (choice B) can lead to issues like atelectasis. Lack of ambulation (choice D) can also contribute to complications like pneumonia and blood clots.

3. A nurse is planning to administer an injection of morphine to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to ensure client safety?

• A. Instruct the client to take a deep breath during administration.
• B. Administer the medication over 30 seconds.
• C. Verify the client’s pain level.
• D. Have naloxone available in case of respiratory depression.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to have naloxone available in case of respiratory depression. Morphine is an opioid that can lead to respiratory depression, especially in higher doses. Naloxone is the antidote for opioid overdose and should be readily accessible when administering morphine to reverse respiratory depression if it occurs. Instructing the client to take a deep breath during administration (choice A) is not directly related to ensuring safety in this scenario. Administering the medication over 30 seconds (choice B) may help with the comfort of the client but does not address the potential risk of respiratory depression. Verifying the client's pain level (choice C) is important but not the primary action to ensure safety when administering morphine.

4. A nurse in a provider's office is assessing a client who reports a decrease in the effectiveness of their arthritis medication. Which client information should the nurse identify as a contributing factor to the decrease in the medication's effectiveness?

• A. Taking the medication with water
• B. Skipping doses of medication
• C. A history of recurring bowel inflammation
• D. Taking anti-inflammatory medication without food

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A history of recurring bowel inflammation can impact the absorption and effectiveness of arthritis medication. Bowel inflammation can affect the body's ability to absorb the medication properly, leading to decreased effectiveness. Choices A, B, and D do not directly relate to the decreased effectiveness of the arthritis medication. Taking medication with water, skipping doses, or taking anti-inflammatory medication without food may not be ideal practices but are not directly linked to the decrease in effectiveness reported by the client.

5. A client wearing an arm cast reports numb fingers. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Place the arm in a dependent position
• B. Administer pain medication
• C. Check the client's circulation
• D. Apply a warm compress to the fingers

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the client's circulation. Numbness in the fingers may indicate compromised circulation or nerve damage. By assessing the circulation first, the nurse can ensure that the cast is not too tight, which could be cutting off blood flow. Option A is incorrect because placing the arm in a dependent position may worsen circulation issues. Option B is incorrect as administering pain medication does not address the underlying cause of numbness. Option D is incorrect as applying a warm compress could mask circulation issues and is not the priority in this situation.

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