Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over the course of 30 min. After maintaining the client’s airway and turning the client on their side, which of the following medications should the nurse administer?

• A. Diazepam IV
• B. Lorazepam PO
• C. Diltiazem IV
• D. Clonazepam PO

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario of a client experiencing prolonged seizures, such as status epilepticus, the priority is to administer a benzodiazepine to stop the seizure activity. Diazepam is the medication of choice for this situation due to its rapid onset of action and effectiveness in terminating seizures quickly. Lorazepam, although another benzodiazepine, is typically given through routes other than oral (PO) administration in emergency situations. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker used for cardiac conditions, not for seizure management. Clonazepam is a benzodiazepine, but it is usually not the first choice in the acute management of status epilepticus.

2. A client with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Encourage the client to listen to music
• B. Ask the client what the voices are saying
• C. Provide the client with a distraction
• D. Administer an antipsychotic medication

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Asking the client what the voices are saying is the priority action as it helps assess the content of the hallucinations. This assessment is crucial to determine if the client is at risk of harm to themselves or others. Encouraging the client to listen to music or providing a distraction may not address the underlying issues related to the hallucinations. Administering antipsychotic medication, although important, should come after a thorough assessment of the hallucinations to ensure the right medication and dosage are provided.

3. When educating a patient on the use of levodopa-carbidopa, which information should the nurse include?

• A. It is a cure for Parkinson's disease
• B. Monitor for dyskinesia
• C. It can be taken at any time
• D. It has no side effects

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor for dyskinesia.' Levodopa-carbidopa can cause dyskinesia as a side effect, which is characterized by involuntary muscle movements. Patients need to be monitored for this adverse effect and instructed to report it to their healthcare provider. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because levodopa-carbidopa is not a cure for Parkinson's disease, it should be taken at specific times for optimal effect, and it does have side effects, such as dyskinesia.

4. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with heart failure and a prescription for furosemide 20 mg PO twice daily. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Monitor for increased blood pressure
• B. Increase intake of high-potassium foods
• C. Expect an increase in swelling in the hands and feet
• D. Take the second dose at bedtime

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Increase intake of high-potassium foods." Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to hypokalemia, a condition characterized by low potassium levels. To prevent this adverse effect, the client should increase their intake of high-potassium foods. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide typically leads to decreased blood pressure, not increased. Choice C is incorrect because furosemide is used to reduce swelling, not increase it. Choice D is incorrect because the second dose of furosemide should be taken in the morning to prevent nocturia.

5. A nurse is caring for a 7-month-old infant being treated for severe dehydration. Which finding indicates treatment has been effective?

• A. Skin turgor displays tenting
• B. Flat anterior fontanel
• C. Cool, mottled skin
• D. Hyperpnea

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A flat anterior fontanel indicates improved hydration in infants, as dehydration typically causes sunken fontanels.

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