ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Adult Medical-Surgical 1 Quiz
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over the course of 30 min. After maintaining the client’s airway and turning the client on their side, which of the following medications should the nurse administer?
- A. Diazepam IV
- B. Lorazepam PO
- C. Diltiazem IV
- D. Clonazepam PO
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In the scenario of a client experiencing prolonged seizures, such as status epilepticus, the priority is to administer a benzodiazepine to stop the seizure activity. Diazepam is the medication of choice for this situation due to its rapid onset of action and effectiveness in terminating seizures quickly. Lorazepam, although another benzodiazepine, is typically given through routes other than oral (PO) administration in emergency situations. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker used for cardiac conditions, not for seizure management. Clonazepam is a benzodiazepine, but it is usually not the first choice in the acute management of status epilepticus.
2. A client has a new diagnosis of osteoarthritis and is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements should be included in the teaching?
- A. Increase your intake of calcium-rich foods.
- B. Avoid foods that are high in potassium.
- C. Increase your intake of vitamin D-rich foods.
- D. Avoid foods that are high in sodium.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct statement to include in the teaching is to increase the intake of vitamin D-rich foods. Vitamin D helps improve calcium absorption, which is beneficial for bone health and may help alleviate symptoms of osteoarthritis. Option A is incorrect because while calcium is important for bone health, the focus should be on vitamin D for calcium absorption. Option B is incorrect as potassium is generally not restricted in osteoarthritis. Option D is also incorrect as sodium restriction is more relevant for conditions like hypertension or heart failure, not specifically for osteoarthritis.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings. Which of the following places the client at risk for aspiration?
- A. A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease.
- B. Receiving a formula with high osmolarity.
- C. Sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding.
- D. A residual of 65 mL 1 hour postprandial.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Clients with gastroesophageal reflux disease have a higher risk of aspiration during tube feeding due to the potential for reflux of stomach contents into the lungs. This increases the risk of aspiration pneumonia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. High osmolarity formulas may cause diarrhea but do not directly increase the risk of aspiration. Sitting in a high-Fowler's position actually reduces the risk of aspiration by promoting proper digestion and reducing the chance of regurgitation. A residual of 65 mL 1 hour postprandial is within an acceptable range and does not directly indicate a risk for aspiration.
4. Which of the following statements regarding SIDS is correct?
- A. SIDS can occur in premature infants.
- B. It is most commonly a result of child abuse.
- C. Death usually occurs during sleep.
- D. SIDS can be prevented by placing the baby on its back to sleep.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct statement regarding SIDS is that death usually occurs during sleep. Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS) is the unexpected death of a seemingly healthy infant, typically occurring during sleep. The exact cause of SIDS is not fully understood. While placing the baby on its back to sleep is a recommended preventive measure to reduce the risk of SIDS, it cannot guarantee prevention. Choice A is incorrect as SIDS is not limited to premature infants. Choice B is incorrect as SIDS is not primarily caused by child abuse.
5. A client is taking levothyroxine for hypothyroidism. Which of the following findings should indicate to the healthcare provider that the client is experiencing levothyroxine toxicity?
- A. Weight loss
- B. Insomnia
- C. Heat intolerance
- D. Dry skin
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Heat intolerance is a hallmark sign of levothyroxine toxicity. It indicates that the client may be receiving an excessive dose of levothyroxine, leading to hyperthyroid symptoms. This can happen when the dosage is too high, causing the body to have an excess of thyroid hormone. Weight loss is a common symptom of hyperthyroidism but alone does not specifically indicate levothyroxine toxicity. Insomnia can be related to hyperthyroidism but is not a specific sign of levothyroxine toxicity. Dry skin is more commonly associated with hypothyroidism rather than levothyroxine toxicity.
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