Nursing Elites

1. What is an early sign indicating the need for suctioning a client's tracheostomy?

• A. Irritability
• B. Hypotension
• C. Flushing
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Irritability is a crucial early sign that a client with a tracheostomy may require suctioning. Irritability could indicate a lack of oxygenation due to the airway blockage, prompting the need for suctioning to clear the airway. Hypotension, flushing, and bradycardia are not typically direct indicators for suctioning a tracheostomy. Hypotension may suggest hemodynamic instability, flushing could be related to autonomic responses, and bradycardia might indicate a cardiac issue rather than the need for suctioning.

2. What is the priority intervention when managing a client with delirium?

• A. Administer antipsychotic medication to calm the client
• B. Identify any reversible causes of delirium
• C. Provide a low-stimulation environment
• D. Administer sedative medication to control agitation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to identify any reversible causes of delirium. Delirium is often caused by underlying issues such as infections, medication side effects, or metabolic imbalances. Addressing these root causes can help resolve delirium more effectively. Administering antipsychotic or sedative medications should not be the initial approach as they can worsen delirium in some cases. Providing a low-stimulation environment is beneficial but not the priority when reversible causes need to be addressed first.

3. Which dietary advice is most appropriate for a client with chronic kidney disease?

• A. Increase intake of fruits and vegetables
• B. Limit intake of potassium-rich foods
• C. Increase intake of dairy products
• D. Reduce intake of protein-rich foods

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate dietary advice for a client with chronic kidney disease is to limit intake of potassium-rich foods. In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys have difficulty filtering potassium from the blood, leading to high levels that can be harmful. Therefore, reducing potassium intake is crucial to prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are not the best options for individuals with chronic kidney disease. Increasing intake of fruits and vegetables (choice A) may actually increase potassium consumption. Increasing intake of dairy products (choice C) can lead to higher phosphorus and potassium levels. Reducing protein-rich foods (choice D) is not the primary focus in the early stages of chronic kidney disease, as protein is necessary for overall health unless kidney function declines significantly.

4. A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following assessment findings indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Elevated blood pressure.
• B. Absence of adventitious breath sounds.
• C. Weight gain of 1.4 kg (3 lb) in 24 hr.
• D. Decreased urine output.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The absence of adventitious breath sounds indicates that furosemide is effective in managing heart failure. Adventitious breath sounds such as crackles indicate fluid accumulation in the lungs, a common complication of heart failure. Therefore, the absence of these abnormal sounds suggests that furosemide is effectively reducing fluid overload. Elevated blood pressure (choice A) is not a desired outcome in heart failure management. Weight gain (choice C) and decreased urine output (choice D) are signs of fluid retention and ineffective diuresis, indicating that furosemide is not working effectively.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postoperative following an appendectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Urine output of 20 mL/hr.
• B. Temperature of 36.5°C (97.7°F).
• C. Sanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing.
• D. WBC count of 9,000/mm3.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Urine output of 20 mL/hr. A urine output less than 30 mL/hr can indicate decreased renal perfusion, potentially due to hypovolemia or other issues, and should be reported to the provider. B: A temperature of 36.5°C (97.7°F) falls within the normal range and does not require immediate reporting. C: Sanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing is expected in the early postoperative period and should be monitored but does not need immediate reporting unless excessive. D: A WBC count of 9,000/mm3 is within the normal range and does not indicate an immediate concern.

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