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ATI Pediatrics Test Bank
1. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer Rh immune globulin (RhoGAM) to a postpartum client. This medication is indicated for:
- A. Rh-negative individuals with Rh-positive infants
- B. Rh-positive individuals with Rh-negative infants
- C. All individuals regardless of Rh status
- D. Individuals with a history of Rh incompatibility
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Rh immune globulin (RhoGAM) is administered to Rh-negative individuals who have given birth to Rh-positive infants to prevent Rh sensitization. When an Rh-negative individual gives birth to an Rh-positive infant, there is a risk of the mother developing antibodies against the Rh-positive blood cells, which can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn in subsequent pregnancies. Rh immune globulin is given to prevent this sensitization in Rh-negative individuals who deliver Rh-positive infants.
2. Which of the following interventions is NOT appropriate for a hospitalized adolescent?
- A. Allow the adolescent to assist with procedures when possible.
- B. Encourage them to discuss their thoughts and feelings about the hospitalization.
- C. Encourage them to remain in the room throughout the hospitalization to ensure adequate rest periods.
- D. Encourage peer visitation.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Encouraging the adolescent to remain in the room throughout the hospitalization may lead to social isolation, hinder the adolescent's emotional well-being, and impede their recovery. It is essential for adolescents to have social interaction, engage in meaningful conversations, and receive support from peers to cope with the stress of hospitalization. Choices A, B, and D are appropriate interventions as they promote involvement in care, emotional expression, and social support, which are beneficial for the adolescent's overall well-being during hospitalization.
3. Use this scenario to answer questions 70 to 72. Madam KK brought her two-month-old sick child to your facility. She complains that the child is having a fever, fast breathing, and is not eating anything. Using the IMNCI, what will be the steps to manage this child?
- A. i. Provide practical treatment instructions
- B. ii. Triage based on the severity of illness
- C. iii. Perform a head-to-toe assessment
- D. iv. Identify specific treatments
Correct answer: D
Rationale: To manage the sick child using IMNCI, the correct steps are as follows: Triage based on the severity of illness, Perform a head-to-toe assessment, Identify specific treatments, Provide practical treatment instructions, and Assess feeding while providing counseling. The correct answer, 'D,' focuses on identifying specific treatments, which is crucial in addressing the child's condition effectively. Choice A ('Provide practical treatment instructions') is not the initial step and should come after identifying specific treatments. Choice B ('Triage based on the severity of illness') and Choice C ('Perform a head-to-toe assessment') are essential steps but should follow the identification of specific treatments in the IMNCI approach.
4. Mr. Lopez has a 7-year-old son with growth hormone (GH) deficiency. He shares with the nurse the desire of his son to play ball games. However, his wife feels the child will be in danger since he is smaller than the other children. In planning anticipatory guidance for these parents, the nurse should keep in mind which of the following?
- A. The child should be allowed to play because doing so can foster healthy self-esteem
- B. The risk for fractures is increased because GH deficiency results in fragile bones
- C. Activity could aggravate insulin sensitivity, causing hyperglycemia
- D. Activity would aggravate the child's joints, already overtasked by obesity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Children with GH deficiency may face challenges due to their size, but it is important to encourage their participation in activities like playing ball games to promote healthy self-esteem. Allowing the child to play can help in building confidence and a sense of accomplishment, which are essential for their overall well-being.
5. You are assessing a 26-year-old woman who is 38 weeks pregnant and is in labor. She tells you that she was pregnant once before but had a miscarriage at 19 weeks. You should document her obstetric history as:
- A. gravida 2, para 1.
- B. gravida 2, para 0.
- C. gravida 1, para 1.
- D. gravida 0, para 2.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In obstetrics, gravida indicates the number of pregnancies, including the current one. Para indicates the number of pregnancies carried to viability (20 weeks or more). Since the patient has been pregnant twice but only carried one pregnancy past 20 weeks, her obstetric history should be documented as gravida 2, para 0. The miscarriage at 19 weeks does not contribute to the para count. Choice A (gravida 2, para 1) would indicate that she has had two pregnancies with one resulting in a live birth, which is incorrect. Choice C (gravida 1, para 1) would indicate that she has had one pregnancy with one live birth, which does not reflect her obstetric history. Choice D (gravida 0, para 2) would indicate that she has never been pregnant past 20 weeks, which is also inaccurate.
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