Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer Rh immune globulin (RhoGAM) to a postpartum client. This medication is indicated for:

• A. Rh-negative individuals with Rh-positive infants
• B. Rh-positive individuals with Rh-negative infants
• C. All individuals regardless of Rh status
• D. Individuals with a history of Rh incompatibility

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Rh immune globulin (RhoGAM) is administered to Rh-negative individuals who have given birth to Rh-positive infants to prevent Rh sensitization. When an Rh-negative individual gives birth to an Rh-positive infant, there is a risk of the mother developing antibodies against the Rh-positive blood cells, which can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn in subsequent pregnancies. Rh immune globulin is given to prevent this sensitization in Rh-negative individuals who deliver Rh-positive infants.

2. Which of the following is MOST likely to occur in conjunction with a breech presentation?

• A. Vertex presentation
• B. Maternal hypertension
• C. Prolapsed umbilical cord
• D. Premature rupture of the amniotic sac

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a breech presentation, where the baby's buttocks or feet present first, there is an increased risk of the umbilical cord slipping down alongside or below the presenting part, leading to a prolapsed umbilical cord. This is a serious complication that can compromise fetal blood flow and oxygenation, necessitating prompt intervention to prevent adverse outcomes. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to occur in conjunction with a breech presentation. Vertex presentation is the normal head-first presentation, maternal hypertension is a separate condition that may not be directly related to fetal presentation, and premature rupture of the amniotic sac can happen independently of the baby's presentation.

3. A 30-year-old woman is 22 weeks pregnant with her first child. She tells you that her rings are not fitting as loosely as they usually do and that her ankles are swollen. Her blood pressure is 150/86 mm Hg. She is MOST likely experiencing:

• A. a condition unrelated to pregnancy.
• B. gestational diabetes.
• C. a hypertensive emergency.
• D. preeclampsia.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The symptoms of swollen ankles, tight rings, and elevated blood pressure in a pregnant woman at 22 weeks gestation are concerning for preeclampsia. Preeclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure and signs of organ damage, commonly seen with symptoms such as swelling (edema) and protein in the urine. It is crucial to monitor and manage preeclampsia promptly as it can lead to severe complications for both the mother and the baby.

4. Which intervention is not appropriate for the hospitalized adolescent?

• A. Allowing the adolescent to assist with procedures when possible.
• B. Encouraging them to discuss their thoughts and feelings about the hospitalization.
• C. Encouraging them to remain in the room throughout the hospitalization to ensure adequate rest periods.
• D. Encouraging peer visitation.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Encouraging the adolescent to remain in the room throughout the hospitalization to ensure adequate rest periods is not appropriate. It is crucial for adolescents to have opportunities for physical activity and social interaction to promote their well-being during hospitalization. Allowing them to assist with procedures when possible can empower them and provide a sense of control. Encouraging discussions about their thoughts and feelings helps address their emotional needs. Facilitating peer visitation fosters social support, which is beneficial for their well-being. Therefore, choice C is the least appropriate as it restricts important aspects of the adolescent's development and coping mechanisms during hospitalization.

5. Which behavior is most indicative that a 2-year-old is experiencing the initial phase of separation anxiety because his parents cannot stay all day at the hospital with him?

• A. He withdraws from the nursing staff.
• B. He cries when his parents leave.
• C. He lies quietly in bed.
• D. He cries when his parents arrive.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most indicative behavior of a 2-year-old experiencing the initial phase of separation anxiety due to parents not staying all day at the hospital is crying when his parents leave. This behavior is a common manifestation of separation anxiety in children, as they struggle with the absence of their primary attachment figures. Choices A, C, and D are less indicative because withdrawing from the nursing staff, lying quietly in bed, or crying when parents arrive do not specifically demonstrate the distress caused by separation from parents, which is the hallmark of separation anxiety in children.

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