Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is administering lorazepam to a client who is scheduled for surgery within 1 hr. Which of the following actions should the nurse take after administering the medication?

• A. Keep the client awake
• B. Instruct the client not to get out of bed
• C. Encourage the client to drink fluids
• D. Encourage early ambulation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client not to get out of bed. Lorazepam is a sedative that can cause drowsiness and impair coordination. By instructing the client not to get out of bed, the nurse helps prevent falls or injuries that could occur due to the medication's sedative effects. Choice A is incorrect as keeping the client awake may not be necessary and could lead to unnecessary discomfort. Choice C is incorrect as encouraging the client to drink fluids is not directly related to the administration of lorazepam. Choice D is incorrect as early ambulation is not safe immediately after administering a sedative medication.

2. The nurse is performing triage on a group of clients in the emergency department. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?

• A. A 12-year-old oozing blood from a laceration on the left thumb due to a cut from a rusty metal can
• B. A 19-year-old with a fever of 103.8°F who is able to identify her sister but not the place and time
• C. A 49-year-old with a compound fracture of the right leg who is complaining of severe pain
• D. A 65-year-old with a flushed face, dry mucous membranes, and a blood sugar of 470 mg/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A 19-year-old with a fever of 103.8°F who is confused and unable to orient to place and time likely has a severe infection or a serious medical condition affecting the central nervous system. This client needs immediate attention as altered mental status combined with a high fever can indicate a life-threatening situation. Choices A, C, and D present important conditions that require medical care, but they are not as urgent as the 19-year-old with a high fever and confusion. The 12-year-old with a laceration may require treatment for bleeding and a tetanus shot, the 49-year-old with a compound fracture needs urgent orthopedic intervention, and the 65-year-old with a high blood sugar is concerning for hyperglycemia but can wait momentarily compared to the client with a fever and altered mental status.

3. A client with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Encourage the client to lie down in a quiet room.
• B. Ask the client directly what they are hearing.
• C. Tell the client that the voices are not real.
• D. Provide headphones for the client to listen to music.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client with schizophrenia experiencing auditory hallucinations is to ask the client directly what they are hearing. This approach helps the nurse gain insight into the client's experience, establish effective communication, and provide appropriate support. Encouraging the client to lie down in a quiet room (Choice A) may not address the hallucinations directly. Telling the client that the voices are not real (Choice C) can be invalidating and may lead to further distress. Providing headphones for music (Choice D) may not be effective in addressing the client's hallucinations.

4. A nurse is planning care for a client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

• A. Restrict the client's fluid intake.
• B. Monitor the client's deep-tendon reflexes.
• C. Place the client in the lithotomy position.
• D. Encourage the client to ambulate frequently.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's deep-tendon reflexes. Monitoring deep-tendon reflexes is crucial in clients with preeclampsia as hyperreflexia can indicate severe complications. Restricting the client's fluid intake is not recommended as hydration is essential. Placing the client in the lithotomy position can worsen preeclampsia by reducing blood flow to the heart, so it should be avoided. Encouraging the client to ambulate frequently may not be suitable for a client with preeclampsia due to the risk of falls and increased stress on the body.

5. How should a healthcare professional manage a patient with diarrhea?

• A. Provide oral fluids and monitor stool consistency
• B. Administer antidiarrheal medications and monitor hydration
• C. Monitor for electrolyte imbalances and provide antibiotics
• D. Provide a low-fiber diet and monitor weight

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For a patient with diarrhea, the priority is to manage dehydration by providing oral fluids and monitoring stool consistency. Option B suggesting administering antidiarrheal medications is not recommended as it may prolong the infection by preventing the body from expelling the infectious agent. Option C is incorrect because antibiotics are not routinely indicated for diarrhea unless there is a specific bacterial infection. Option D is not the most appropriate initial intervention for managing diarrhea since a low-fiber diet may not provide adequate nutrition for the patient or help resolve the underlying cause of diarrhea.

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