a nurse is administering lorazepam to a client who is scheduled for surgery within 1 hr which of the following actions should the nurse take after adm
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ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quizlet

1. A nurse is administering lorazepam to a client who is scheduled for surgery within 1 hr. Which of the following actions should the nurse take after administering the medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client not to get out of bed. Lorazepam is a sedative that can cause drowsiness and impair coordination. By instructing the client not to get out of bed, the nurse helps prevent falls or injuries that could occur due to the medication's sedative effects. Choice A is incorrect as keeping the client awake may not be necessary and could lead to unnecessary discomfort. Choice C is incorrect as encouraging the client to drink fluids is not directly related to the administration of lorazepam. Choice D is incorrect as early ambulation is not safe immediately after administering a sedative medication.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who is prescribed spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor for this client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client's serum potassium levels to prevent hyperkalemia, which can be a potential side effect of spironolactone. Monitoring total bilirubin levels (A) is not specifically required for clients taking spironolactone. Urine ketones (B) are not directly influenced by spironolactone use. Platelet count (D) is not typically monitored in clients taking spironolactone.

3. Which of the following findings indicates a need for immediate attention in a client diagnosed with delirium?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Irritability and agitation that worsen throughout the day. These symptoms are concerning in a client diagnosed with delirium as they may indicate an exacerbation of the condition or an underlying cause that requires immediate attention. Option A describes symptoms that resolve with rest, which may not be as urgent. Option B provides a normal blood pressure reading, which is not typically associated with immediate attention in delirium cases. Option D describes mild confusion during specific hours, which may not be as critical as worsening symptoms throughout the day.

4. What is the first step in preparing a blood transfusion?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first step in preparing a blood transfusion is to verify the client's blood type before starting the transfusion. This step is crucial to ensure compatibility and prevent adverse reactions. Administering the blood via IV push (Choice A) is incorrect as it skips the essential step of verifying the blood type. Warming the blood to body temperature (Choice C) is important but comes after verifying the blood type. Administering diuretics (Choice D) is not part of the preparation process for a blood transfusion.

5. How should a healthcare provider assess a patient with sepsis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In sepsis, it is crucial to monitor vital signs to assess the patient's condition and administer fluids to maintain circulation. This approach helps in stabilizing blood pressure and perfusion. While monitoring for fever and administering antibiotics (choice B) is important in managing sepsis, the initial priority lies in assessing and stabilizing the patient's hemodynamic status. Checking for tachycardia and elevated white blood cell count (choice C) can be part of the assessment but does not encompass the immediate intervention needed in sepsis. Administering fluids and providing nutritional support (choice D) are essential in managing sepsis, but the primary step should be to assess the patient's condition through vital sign monitoring.

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