Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is receiving report on four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to see first?

• A. A client who is NPO and has dry mucous membranes
• B. A client with rotavirus who has been vomiting
• C. A client who has a urinary catheter and cloudy urine
• D. A client who has pneumonia and a new onset of confusion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because a client with pneumonia and a new onset of confusion needs immediate evaluation for changes in neurological status. This could indicate a decline in respiratory status or potential complications such as hypoxia or sepsis. Option A, a client who is NPO and has dry mucous membranes, may need intervention but does not indicate an acute change in condition. Option B, a client with rotavirus who has been vomiting, requires assessment and intervention but does not pose an immediate threat to life. Option C, a client with a urinary catheter and cloudy urine, may indicate a urinary tract infection but does not require immediate attention compared to the client with new onset confusion and pneumonia.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent atelectasis?

• A. Encourage deep breathing exercises
• B. Encourage the client to cough every 2 hours
• C. Administer an incentive spirometer
• D. Assist the client to ambulate in the hallway

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Administer an incentive spirometer. Using an incentive spirometer helps prevent atelectasis by encouraging lung expansion after surgery. Encouraging deep breathing exercises (choice A) is beneficial but may not be as effective as an incentive spirometer. Encouraging the client to cough (choice B) helps with airway clearance but does not directly prevent atelectasis. Assisting the client to ambulate (choice D) is important for preventing complications such as deep vein thrombosis, but it is not the most effective intervention for preventing atelectasis.

3. A client is being taught about taking warfarin to treat atrial fibrillation. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will take this medication on an empty stomach.
• B. If I forget to take a dose, I can take it later on the same day.
• C. I will skip my dose if I forget to take it.
• D. I can take an additional dose if I miss one.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because taking warfarin later on the same day if a dose is missed helps maintain therapeutic levels. Choice A is incorrect because warfarin should be taken with food to enhance absorption. Choice C is incorrect as skipping a dose can lead to fluctuations in warfarin levels. Choice D is incorrect as taking an additional dose can increase the risk of bleeding.

4. How should a healthcare provider assess and manage a patient with hyperthyroidism?

• A. Administer beta-blockers and monitor for signs of thyroid storm
• B. Encourage a high-protein, low-iodine diet
• C. Monitor for signs of bradycardia
• D. Provide iodine supplements and check for arrhythmias

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering beta-blockers is the initial management for hyperthyroidism to control symptoms such as tachycardia and tremors. Monitoring for signs of thyroid storm is crucial as it is a life-threatening complication of hyperthyroidism. Encouraging a high-protein, low-iodine diet (choice B) is not the primary intervention for managing hyperthyroidism. Monitoring for signs of bradycardia (choice C) is not typically seen in hyperthyroidism, as it often presents with tachycardia. Providing iodine supplements and checking for arrhythmias (choice D) are contraindicated in hyperthyroidism as they can worsen the condition.

5. A client with newly diagnosed type I diabetes mellitus is being seen by the home health nurse. The physician orders include: 1,200-calorie ADA diet, 15 units of NPH insulin before breakfast, and check blood sugar qid. When the nurse visits the client at 5 PM, the nurse observes the man performing a blood sugar analysis. The result is 50 mg/dL. The nurse would expect the client to be

• A. Confused with cold, clammy skin and a pulse of 110
• B. Lethargic with hot, dry skin and rapid, deep respirations
• C. Alert and cooperative with a BP of 130/80 and respirations of 12
• D. Short of breath, with distended neck veins and a bounding pulse of 96

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Low blood sugar levels (50 mg/dL) typically cause confusion, cold clammy skin, and an increased pulse (tachycardia). Option A correctly describes the expected symptoms of hypoglycemia, which include confusion due to the brain's inadequate glucose supply, cold and clammy skin due to sympathetic nervous system activation, and an increased pulse (110 bpm) as the body reacts to low blood sugar levels. Options B, C, and D describe symptoms that are not typically associated with hypoglycemia. Lethargy, hot dry skin, rapid deep respirations, normal vital signs, shortness of breath, distended neck veins, and bounding pulse are more indicative of other conditions or normal physiological responses, not hypoglycemia.

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