a nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who underwent surgery for a hip fracture which of the following findings should the nurse report t
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Nursing Elites

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ATI Comprehensive Predictor PN

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client who underwent surgery for a hip fracture. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fever. Fever in a postoperative client can indicate an infection, which is a serious complication and should be reported immediately to the provider for further evaluation and management. Clear lung sounds (Choice A) are a positive finding indicating normal respiratory function. Pain in the operative leg (Choice C) is expected postoperatively and should be managed with appropriate pain relief measures. Capillary refill of 2 seconds (Choice D) is within the normal range (less than 3 seconds) and is not a concerning finding postoperatively.

2. A client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and has a history of hepatitis C asks the nurse if she will be able to breastfeed. Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is A: 'You may breastfeed unless your nipples are cracked or bleeding.' In the case of hepatitis C, breastfeeding is generally safe unless the mother's nipples are cracked or bleeding, which could increase the risk of transmission to the baby. Choice B is incorrect as using a breast pump is not a mandatory requirement for breastfeeding with hepatitis C. Choice C is incorrect as a nipple shield is not necessary in this situation. Choice D is incorrect because the baby developing antibodies does not impact the decision to breastfeed in the context of hepatitis C.

3. What are the early signs of a pulmonary embolism?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chest pain, shortness of breath, and tachycardia. These are classic early signs of a pulmonary embolism. Chest pain may be sudden and sharp, worsened by deep breathing or coughing. Shortness of breath can be sudden and severe. Tachycardia (rapid heart rate) is another common symptom. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not represent typical early signs of a pulmonary embolism.

4. What are the risk factors for pressure ulcer development?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: The correct answer is immobility and poor nutrition. Immobility can lead to constant pressure on certain areas of the body, while poor nutrition can impair tissue repair and regeneration, both contributing to the development of pressure ulcers. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while obesity, diabetes, dehydration, malnutrition, use of assistive devices, and prolonged bedrest can impact skin integrity and wound healing, they are not the primary risk factors specifically associated with pressure ulcer development.

5. Which of the following is a realistic short-term goal to be accomplished in 2 to 3 days for a client with delirium?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Regaining orientation to time and place is a realistic short-term goal for clients with delirium. It helps the individual become aware of their surroundings and current situation, aiding in reducing confusion and disorientation. Choice A is incorrect because the goal is focused on the client's understanding, not on explaining the experience of delirium. Choice B, resuming a normal sleep-wake cycle, may take longer than 2 to 3 days to achieve and is not directly related to regaining orientation. Choice D, establishing normal bowel and bladder function, is important but may not be a short-term goal specifically related to delirium.

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