a nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a client who is postoperative following a hip replacement which of the following interventions should the nu
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Nursing Elites

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ATI NCLEX PN Predictor Test

1. A nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a client who is postoperative following a hip replacement. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement to prevent venous thromboembolism?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention to prevent venous thromboembolism in a postoperative client following hip replacement is to administer anticoagulant therapy as prescribed. Anticoagulants help prevent blood clots from forming. Instructing the client to perform ankle pumps helps prevent blood clots by promoting circulation. Maintaining the client in a prone position can increase the risk of venous stasis and thrombus formation. Encouraging the client to ambulate as tolerated also helps prevent venous thromboembolism by promoting blood flow and preventing stasis.

2. When instructing a client with tuberculosis on home care, what is the priority teaching point?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Take medication for 6-9 months.' The priority teaching point for a client with tuberculosis is to ensure they understand the importance of completing the entire course of medication. This is crucial to effectively treat and cure tuberculosis, prevent the development of drug-resistant strains, and reduce the risk of transmission to others. Choice A is incorrect as wearing a surgical mask at all times is not the priority teaching point for tuberculosis home care. Choice B is not the priority teaching point; while limiting visitors can help reduce exposure to others, completing the medication course is more critical. Choice D is not relevant to tuberculosis home care instructions.

3. What is the recommended intervention for a patient experiencing severe hypoglycemia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering glucagon is the recommended intervention for severe hypoglycemia, especially when the patient is unconscious or unable to consume oral glucose. Glucagon helps increase blood glucose levels rapidly by stimulating the release of stored glucose from the liver. Providing a source of glucose (Choice B) can be challenging if the patient is unable to swallow or unconscious, making glucagon a more effective option. Monitoring blood sugar levels (Choice C) and assessing vital signs (Choice D) are important aspects of managing hypoglycemia but are not the immediate intervention for severe cases where prompt elevation of blood glucose levels is necessary.

4. A healthcare provider is collecting data from a client who has multiple sclerosis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Ataxia, which refers to difficulty with coordination, is a common symptom seen in individuals with multiple sclerosis. Nystagmus, the involuntary eye movement, can also occur in multiple sclerosis but is not as common as ataxia. Fatigue is a common symptom in multiple sclerosis, but ataxia is more specific. Fever is not a typical finding associated with multiple sclerosis.

5. How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with hyperkalemia?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In managing hyperkalemia, it is essential to administer insulin and glucose to shift potassium into the cells, restrict potassium intake to prevent further elevation of serum levels, and monitor the ECG for signs of potassium-induced cardiac effects. Therefore, the correct answer is D, as all of the provided actions are important in the management of hyperkalemia. Choice A alone is not sufficient as it only addresses shifting potassium intracellularly without preventing further elevation. Choice B alone is not enough as it does not address the immediate need to lower serum potassium levels. Choice C alone is insufficient as it only monitors for cardiac effects without addressing potassium levels or shifting mechanisms.

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