Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a client who is postoperative following a hip replacement. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement to prevent venous thromboembolism?

• A. Instruct the client to perform ankle pumps
• B. Administer anticoagulant therapy as prescribed
• C. Maintain the client in a prone position
• D. Encourage the client to ambulate as tolerated

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention to prevent venous thromboembolism in a postoperative client following hip replacement is to administer anticoagulant therapy as prescribed. Anticoagulants help prevent blood clots from forming. Instructing the client to perform ankle pumps helps prevent blood clots by promoting circulation. Maintaining the client in a prone position can increase the risk of venous stasis and thrombus formation. Encouraging the client to ambulate as tolerated also helps prevent venous thromboembolism by promoting blood flow and preventing stasis.

2. What is the nurse's responsibility when caring for a client with a chest tube?

• A. Check for air leaks in the tubing every 4 hours
• B. Clamp the chest tube for 30 minutes every 4 hours
• C. Encourage deep breathing and coughing every 2 hours
• D. Keep the client in a high Fowler's position

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to check for air leaks in the tubing every 4 hours when caring for a client with a chest tube. This responsibility is crucial because it ensures proper chest tube function and helps prevent complications such as pneumothorax or hemothorax. Clamping the chest tube (Choice B) can lead to serious issues by causing a tension pneumothorax. Encouraging deep breathing and coughing (Choice C) is important for respiratory hygiene but is not directly related to chest tube care. Keeping the client in a high Fowler's position (Choice D) may be beneficial for some conditions but is not specific to chest tube management.

3. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has diabetes mellitus and is receiving insulin. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Hemoglobin A1c of 6%
• B. Fasting blood glucose of 90 mg/dL
• C. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dL
• D. Blood glucose of 100 mg/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A blood glucose level of 200 mg/dL indicates hyperglycemia and should be reported for potential insulin adjustment.

4. How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with hyperkalemia?

• A. Administer insulin and glucose
• B. Restrict potassium intake
• C. Monitor ECG
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In managing hyperkalemia, it is essential to administer insulin and glucose to shift potassium into the cells, restrict potassium intake to prevent further elevation of serum levels, and monitor the ECG for signs of potassium-induced cardiac effects. Therefore, the correct answer is D, as all of the provided actions are important in the management of hyperkalemia. Choice A alone is not sufficient as it only addresses shifting potassium intracellularly without preventing further elevation. Choice B alone is not enough as it does not address the immediate need to lower serum potassium levels. Choice C alone is insufficient as it only monitors for cardiac effects without addressing potassium levels or shifting mechanisms.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Polyuria.
• B. Dehydration.
• C. Hyponatremia.
• D. Hyperglycemia.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hyponatremia. In SIADH, there is excessive release of antidiuretic hormone, causing water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. Polyuria (choice A) is increased urination, which is not a typical finding in SIADH. Dehydration (choice B) is the loss of body fluids, which is opposite to the fluid retention seen in SIADH. Hyperglycemia (choice D) is elevated blood sugar levels and is not directly related to SIADH.

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