Nursing Elites

1. Which assessment finding indicates a client's readiness to leave the nursing unit for a bronchoscopy?

• A. Client denies allergies to contrast media.
• B. Skin prep to insertion site completed.
• C. On-call sedation administered.
• D. Oxygen at 2 L/minute via nasal cannula.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering on-call sedation is crucial before a bronchoscopy to ensure the client is comfortable and adequately prepared for the procedure. Sedation helps reduce anxiety, discomfort, and ensures the client remains still during the bronchoscopy, enabling the healthcare provider to perform the procedure effectively.

2. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed ipratropium. What is the primary action of this medication?

• A. Reduce inflammation
• B. Relieve bronchospasm
• C. Suppress cough
• D. Thin respiratory secretions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Ipratropium is an anticholinergic bronchodilator that primarily works to relieve bronchospasm by dilating the airways and improving airflow in patients with COPD. It does not have a significant effect on reducing inflammation, suppressing cough, or thinning respiratory secretions.

3. An 82-year-old woman with no past medical history presents to your clinic complaining of arthritic symptoms. She is not taking any medications but needs something for her arthritis. You want to start her on a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) but are concerned about her age and the risk of peptic ulcers. As she has to pay for her medications out-of-pocket and requests the most cost-effective option, what is the most appropriate treatment plan?

• A. Prescribe an inexpensive NSAID alone
• B. Prescribe an inexpensive NSAID and misoprostol
• C. Prescribe celecoxib
• D. Prescribe an inexpensive NSAID and sucralfate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate treatment plan would be to prescribe an inexpensive NSAID alone. While the elderly woman is at a higher risk of developing NSAID-related toxicity, prophylaxis with misoprostol or sucralfate is not recommended in the absence of a history of peptic ulcer disease or abdominal symptoms. Celecoxib, a selective COX-2 inhibitor, may be a more expensive option than traditional NSAIDs. Considering the patient's preference for the most inexpensive option and the lack of specific risk factors, starting with a standalone NSAID is the most suitable approach.

4. A healthcare professional is participating in the emergency care of a client who has just developed variceal bleeding. What intervention should the healthcare professional anticipate?

• A. Infusion of intravenous heparin
• B. IV administration of albumin
• C. STAT administration of vitamin K by the intramuscular route
• D. IV administration of octreotide

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for variceal bleeding is IV administration of octreotide. Octreotide helps control bleeding from varices by reducing portal blood flow and pressure, which is crucial in managing this emergency situation.

5. When should the charge nurse intervene based on the observed behavior?

• A. Two staff members are overheard talking about a cure for AIDS outside a client's room.
• B. A hospital transporter is reading a client's history and physical while waiting for an elevator.
• C. A UAP tells a client, 'It's hard to quit drinking but Alcoholics Anonymous helped me.'
• D. Two visitors are discussing a hospitalized client's history of drug abuse in the visitor's lounge.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The hospital transporter reading a client's history and physical without a legitimate need violates patient confidentiality. This behavior requires immediate intervention to protect the client's privacy and confidentiality rights.

Similar Questions