when caring for a client diagnosed with delirium what condition should the nurse prioritize investigating
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020

1. When caring for a client diagnosed with delirium, what condition should the nurse prioritize investigating?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to investigate for signs of infection when caring for a client diagnosed with delirium. Infections can frequently cause or worsen delirium. While investigating medication history, sensory deficits, and cognitive functioning may be important in the overall care of the client, when prioritizing, the nurse should first rule out or address potential infections due to their significant impact on delirium.

2. What are the early signs of heart failure in a patient?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Shortness of breath and weight gain. Early signs of heart failure typically manifest as shortness of breath due to fluid accumulation in the lungs and weight gain due to fluid retention in the body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Fatigue and chest pain are symptoms commonly associated with heart conditions but are not specific early signs of heart failure. Nausea and vomiting are not typically early signs of heart failure. Cough can be a symptom of heart failure, but it is usually associated with other symptoms like shortness of breath rather than being an isolated early sign. Elevated blood pressure is not an early sign of heart failure; in fact, heart failure is more commonly associated with low blood pressure.

3. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

4. A nurse assisting with a childbirth class is discussing nonpharmacological strategies used during labor. Which of the following statements by a client indicates an understanding of cutaneous stimulation?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Apply counter-pressure for back pain.' Counter-pressure involves applying pressure to the lower back to alleviate pain during labor. This technique is a form of cutaneous stimulation, which can help with pain relief. Choice B, deep breathing exercises, is a form of relaxation technique and does not directly involve cutaneous stimulation. Choice C, visualizing the baby's head, is a mental imagery technique and does not involve physical stimulation of the skin. Choice D, massage therapy, is a tactile stimulation technique but is not specifically focused on back pain relief through counter-pressure.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is constipated. What intervention is most appropriate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for constipation is to encourage the client to increase dietary fiber intake. Fiber helps promote bowel movements and relieve constipation by adding bulk to the stool. Administering a laxative (Choice A) should not be the first-line intervention as it can lead to dependence. Encouraging rest (Choice C) is not directly helpful in relieving constipation. While administering a stool softener (Choice D) can be beneficial, increasing fiber intake is generally preferred as the initial intervention.

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