what are the side effects of chemotherapy and how should they be managed
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI Comprehensive Predictor PN

1. What are the side effects of chemotherapy, and how should they be managed?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct side effects of chemotherapy mentioned in this question are nausea and vomiting. These side effects are commonly managed with antiemetics to improve the quality of life for patients undergoing chemotherapy. Choice B (Hair loss and anemia) is incorrect as hair loss and anemia are potential side effects of chemotherapy but are not addressed in this question. Choice C (Diarrhea and fatigue) is also incorrect as it does not match the side effects provided. Choice D (Weight gain and high blood pressure) is inaccurate as these are not typical side effects of chemotherapy.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has hypokalemia. Which of the following clinical findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Decreased bowel sounds. In hypokalemia, decreased bowel sounds are common due to slowed peristalsis. Hyperactive reflexes (choice A) and increased deep tendon reflexes (choice D) are more indicative of hyperkalemia. A strong, bounding pulse (choice B) is not typically associated with hypokalemia.

3. A nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube post-surgery. What is the most important assessment?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Check for air leaks and ensure proper chest tube function.' This is the most important assessment for a client with a chest tube post-surgery because it ensures that the chest tube is functioning properly. Checking for air leaks helps prevent complications such as pneumothorax or hemothorax. Choice A is incorrect because clamping the chest tube periodically can lead to serious complications and should not be done unless specifically ordered by a healthcare provider. Choice C is important for promoting lung expansion but is not the most critical assessment related to the chest tube. Choice D is also important for respiratory function but is not the priority when assessing a chest tube post-surgery.

4. A healthcare provider is caring for a client with a pressure ulcer and needs to review the client's medical history. Which of the following findings is expected?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL is indicative of poor nutrition, a common factor in the development of pressure ulcers. The Braden scale assesses the risk of developing pressure ulcers but does not reflect the client's medical history. Hemoglobin level is more related to oxygen-carrying capacity rather than pressure ulcer development. The Norton scale evaluates risk for developing pressure ulcers but is not typically part of a client's medical history.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has been experiencing chronic pain. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client experiencing chronic pain is to teach relaxation techniques. This helps the client manage pain more effectively by reducing stress and anxiety, which can contribute to the perception of pain. Providing distractions like television (Choice A) may offer temporary relief but does not address the underlying issue of chronic pain. Administering pain medication around the clock (Choice B) may lead to dependency and not promote holistic pain management. Massage therapy (Choice D) can be beneficial but may not be as effective as teaching relaxation techniques in the long term for managing chronic pain.

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