ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023
1. A nurse in a long-term care facility is auscultating the lung sounds of a client who reports shortness of breath and increased fatigue. The nurse should report which of the following to the provider after hearing this sound?
- A. Fine crackles
- B. Rhonchi
- C. Wheezing
- D. Stridor
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fine crackles. Fine crackles suggest fluid in the lungs, which could indicate a serious respiratory issue like pulmonary edema. This sound should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and possible intervention. Rhonchi (choice B) are low-pitched wheezing sounds often caused by secretions in the larger airways, wheezing (choice C) is a high-pitched whistling sound usually caused by narrowed airways, and stridor (choice D) is a high-pitched sound heard on inspiration that indicates upper airway obstruction. While these sounds also require attention, fine crackles are more indicative of fluid accumulation in the lungs, making them the priority for reporting in this scenario.
2. A client with a tracheostomy is exhibiting signs of respiratory distress. What is the first action the nurse should take?
- A. Increase the suction setting on the ventilator
- B. Suction the tracheostomy
- C. Notify the physician immediately
- D. Encourage deep breathing exercises
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct first action for a client with a tracheostomy exhibiting signs of respiratory distress is to suction the tracheostomy. This helps clear the airway and improve breathing. Increasing the suction setting on the ventilator is not appropriate as the issue may be related to secretions that need to be directly removed. Notifying the physician should come after providing immediate nursing interventions. Encouraging deep breathing exercises is not suitable when the client is in respiratory distress and needs prompt intervention.
3. What are the risk factors for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and how can it be prevented?
- A. Immobility and oral contraceptive use
- B. Pregnancy and smoking
- C. Obesity and varicose veins
- D. Hypertension and high cholesterol
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Immobility and oral contraceptive use. Immobility and oral contraceptive use are significant risk factors for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Immobility leads to blood stasis, increasing the risk of clot formation, while oral contraceptive use can promote hypercoagulability. Prevention strategies for DVT include promoting mobility to enhance blood circulation and using anticoagulants to prevent clot formation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. While pregnancy and smoking can increase the risk of DVT, they are not the specific factors mentioned in the question. Similarly, obesity and varicose veins, as well as hypertension and high cholesterol, are not the primary risk factors associated with DVT.
4. Which dietary restriction should be taught to a client with chronic kidney disease?
- A. Increase potassium-rich foods
- B. Limit phosphorus and potassium intake
- C. Encourage increased protein intake
- D. Increase fluid intake
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Limit phosphorus and potassium intake. In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys are unable to effectively filter these minerals from the blood, leading to their accumulation and potential complications. Restricting phosphorus and potassium intake is crucial in managing the progression of the disease. Choice A is incorrect as increasing potassium-rich foods can worsen the condition. Choice C is also incorrect as excessive protein intake can put more strain on the kidneys. Choice D is not the priority; rather, fluid intake should be monitored based on individual needs and stage of kidney disease.
5. A client takes prednisone daily for the treatment of chronic asthma. The nurse should plan to monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Hyperglycemia
- B. Hypertension
- C. Gastric ulcer formation
- D. Diarrhea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Gastric ulcer formation. Prednisone, a corticosteroid, increases the risk of gastric ulcer formation, especially with long-term use. While prednisone can also lead to hyperglycemia (choice A) and hypertension (choice B) as adverse effects, monitoring for gastric ulcer formation is a priority due to its association with corticosteroid therapy. Diarrhea (choice D) is not a common adverse effect of prednisone and is less likely compared to gastric ulcers.
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