ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023
1. A client is scheduled for a 12-lead ECG. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Ensure the client is fasting before the test
- B. Provide a warm blanket for the client
- C. Apply cold compresses to the client's chest
- D. Instruct the client to remain still
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During a 12-lead ECG, the client needs to remain still to obtain accurate readings. Therefore, instructing the client to remain still is essential. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because fasting is not necessary for an ECG, providing a warm blanket is not a standard procedure, and applying cold compresses may interfere with the ECG results.
2. Which symptom would indicate a complication after a subdural hematoma?
- A. Increased appetite
- B. Decreased level of consciousness
- C. High-pitched cry
- D. Bulging posterior fontanelle
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A bulging posterior fontanelle is a sign of increased intracranial pressure in infants, not a common symptom after a subdural hematoma. In the context of a subdural hematoma, a decreased level of consciousness is more indicative of a complication as it can be a sign of worsening brain function due to increased pressure on the brain from the collection of blood in the subdural space. Increased appetite and high-pitched cry are not typically associated with complications of a subdural hematoma.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has an altered mental status and has become aggressive. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse clarify with the provider prior to administration?
- A. Haloperidol
- B. Zolpidem
- C. Morphine
- D. Lorazepam
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Zolpidem. Zolpidem is a sedative-hypnotic medication that can worsen altered mental status, especially in clients who are already aggressive. Therefore, the nurse should clarify this prescription with the provider before administration to ensure it is safe for the client. Choice A, Haloperidol, is an antipsychotic commonly used to manage aggression in clients with altered mental status, making it an appropriate choice in this scenario. Choice C, Morphine, is an opioid analgesic and would not directly impact the client's altered mental status or aggression. Choice D, Lorazepam, is a benzodiazepine used to manage anxiety and agitation, which could be beneficial in this situation but does not have the same potential to exacerbate altered mental status as Zolpidem.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has bipolar disorder and is experiencing acute mania. Which of the following findings is the nurse's priority?
- A. Increased speech
- B. Lack of sleep
- C. Agitation
- D. Poor concentration
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is lack of sleep (choice B). In acute mania, lack of sleep can exacerbate symptoms, lead to exhaustion, and pose serious risks to the client's well-being. Addressing the client's sleep deprivation is a priority as it can impact their overall health and recovery. Increased speech (choice A) and agitation (choice C) are common in acute mania but do not pose immediate physical risks like lack of sleep. Poor concentration (choice D) is also a symptom of acute mania but addressing sleep deprivation takes precedence due to its severe consequences.
5. A client with moderate anxiety disorder is being taught stress management techniques by a nurse. Which response by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will take a walk to reduce my anxiety
- B. I will imagine myself in a calm place when I can't concentrate
- C. I will meditate every other week
- D. I will cut back on my caffeine intake
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because imagining oneself in a calm place is a relaxation technique that helps reduce anxiety. Walking, meditating every other week, or cutting back on caffeine intake may have their benefits, but they are not as directly related to the immediate management of anxiety as the visualization technique described in option B.
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