Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a male client who is receiving a unit of packed red blood cells (PRBCs), the nurse notes that the infusion was started 30 minutes ago, and 50 ml of blood is left to be infused. The client's vital signs are within normal limits. He reports feeling 'out of breath' but denies any other complaints. What action should the nurse take at this time?

• A. Administer a PRN prescription for diphenhydramine (Benadryl).
• B. Start the normal saline attached to the Y-tubing at the same rate.
• C. Decrease the intravenous flow rate of the PRBC transfusion.
• D. Ask the respiratory therapist to administer PRN albuterol (Ventolin).

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing symptoms of shortness of breath, which could indicate fluid overload from the PRBC transfusion. By decreasing the intravenous flow rate of the transfusion, the nurse can slow down the rate of blood being infused, potentially alleviating the symptoms of fluid overload and shortness of breath. This intervention can help prevent further complications and promote the client's comfort and safety.

2. A client with chronic renal failure is prescribed epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which outcome indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Increased urine output.
• B. Decreased blood pressure.
• C. Improved hemoglobin levels.
• D. Stable potassium levels.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Epoetin alfa is a medication that stimulates red blood cell production. Therefore, in a client with chronic renal failure, an effective outcome of epoetin alfa therapy would be an improvement in hemoglobin levels. This indicates that the medication is working as intended by addressing anemia, a common complication of chronic renal failure. Increased urine output (choice A) is not directly related to the action of epoetin alfa. Decreased blood pressure (choice B) is not a primary expected outcome of epoetin alfa therapy. Stable potassium levels (choice D) are important but not a direct indicator of the effectiveness of epoetin alfa in this context.

3. A 34-year-old woman presents with intermittent abdominal pain, bloating, and diarrhea. She notes that her symptoms improve with fasting. She has a history of iron deficiency anemia. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Irritable bowel syndrome
• B. Celiac disease
• C. Lactose intolerance
• D. Crohn's disease

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's symptoms of intermittent abdominal pain, bloating, and diarrhea that improve with fasting, along with a history of iron deficiency anemia, are highly suggestive of celiac disease. In celiac disease, gluten ingestion leads to mucosal damage in the small intestine, causing malabsorption of nutrients like iron, leading to anemia. The improvement of symptoms with fasting can be explained by the temporary avoidance of gluten-containing foods. Irritable bowel syndrome typically does not improve with fasting. Lactose intolerance usually presents with symptoms after dairy consumption, not with fasting. Crohn's disease typically presents with more chronic symptoms and is not commonly associated with improvement on fasting.

4. A young adult female client is seen in the emergency department for a minor injury following a motor vehicle collision. She states she is very angry at the person who hit her car. What is the best nursing response?

• A. You are lucky to be alive. Be grateful no one was killed.'
• B. I understand your car was not seriously damaged.'
• C. You are upset that this incident has brought you here.'
• D. Have you ever been in the emergency department before?'

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Validating the client's feelings can help her express and manage her emotions effectively.

5. The client has been prescribed metformin (Glucophage) for type 2 diabetes. Which instruction should the nurse include in discharge teaching?

• A. Take the medication at bedtime.
• B. Take the medication with meals.
• C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• D. Take the medication as needed for high blood sugar.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for taking metformin (Glucophage) is with meals. This helps reduce gastrointestinal side effects and improves the medication's absorption. Taking it on an empty stomach can lead to more adverse effects, so it is essential to take it with food. Option A ('Take the medication at bedtime') is incorrect because metformin should be taken with meals to enhance its effectiveness and reduce side effects. Option C ('Take the medication on an empty stomach') is incorrect as taking metformin on an empty stomach can increase the likelihood of experiencing gastrointestinal issues. Option D ('Take the medication as needed for high blood sugar') is incorrect because metformin is typically taken regularly as prescribed, not just as needed for high blood sugar.

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