Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), which laboratory value is most important for the nurse to monitor regularly?

• A. Albumin
• B. Calcium
• C. Glucose
• D. Alkaline phosphatase

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most important laboratory value to monitor regularly in clients receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is glucose. TPN solutions contain high concentrations of glucose, which can lead to hyperglycemia. Monitoring glucose levels is crucial to detect and prevent hyperglycemia, a common complication associated with TPN administration. Albumin (Choice A) levels are not typically affected by TPN administration. Calcium (Choice B) and alkaline phosphatase (Choice D) are not directly impacted by TPN and are not the primary values to monitor in TPN therapy.

2. The client is scheduled to undergo a treadmill stress test. Which instruction should the client be reinforced with?

• A. Eat a light meal before the test.
• B. Wear comfortable shoes and clothing.
• C. Avoid all physical activity the morning of the test.
• D. Take prescribed medications right before the test.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Wear comfortable shoes and clothing.' Wearing comfortable shoes and clothing is crucial for the client undergoing a treadmill stress test to ensure they can complete the test without discomfort. The right attire will help the client move freely and reduce the risk of any hindrance during the test, which requires physical activity. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. A light meal before the test may be recommended, but it's not as crucial as wearing suitable attire. Avoiding physical activity the morning of the test is not necessary as the test requires physical activity. Taking prescribed medications right before the test instructions should be followed as per the healthcare provider's advice and not as a general rule for all clients undergoing the test.

3. A client has a new prescription for amlodipine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Monitor blood pressure daily.
• C. Increase intake of potassium-rich foods.
• D. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor blood pressure daily.' When a client is prescribed amlodipine, it is essential to monitor their blood pressure regularly. Amlodipine is known to cause hypotension, so monitoring blood pressure helps ensure it stays within the desired range to prevent complications associated with low blood pressure. Choice A is incorrect because amlodipine can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect as increasing potassium intake is not a specific instruction related to amlodipine. Choice D is incorrect as grapefruit juice interactions are not typically a concern with amlodipine.

4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed theophylline. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor for that indicates toxicity?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Constipation
• C. Drowsiness
• D. Tremors

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tachycardia. Tachycardia is a common sign of theophylline toxicity. The nurse should monitor the client for an increased heart rate, as it can indicate a dangerous level of theophylline in the body. Prompt medical attention is required if tachycardia is observed to prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because constipation, drowsiness, and tremors are not typically associated with theophylline toxicity. While theophylline can cause gastrointestinal upset or central nervous system effects, tachycardia is a more specific and serious indicator of toxicity that requires immediate attention.

5. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving anticoagulant therapy. The nurse should reinforce with the client the importance of reporting which potential side effect?

• A. Nausea
• B. Headache
• C. Gingival bleeding
• D. Dizziness

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Gingival bleeding.' Gingival bleeding is a common side effect of anticoagulant therapy. Anticoagulants work by prolonging the time it takes for blood to clot, which can lead to bleeding issues, including gingival bleeding. Nausea, headache, and dizziness are not typically associated with anticoagulant therapy. Since bleeding, including gingival bleeding, can be a serious side effect that requires medical attention, the client should be educated on reporting it promptly to their healthcare provider.

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