when a nurse assesses a client receiving total parenteral nutrition tpn which laboratory value is most important for the nurse to monitor regularly
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LPN Pharmacology Practice Questions

1. When assessing a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), which laboratory value is most important for the nurse to monitor regularly?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most important laboratory value to monitor regularly in clients receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is glucose. TPN solutions contain high concentrations of glucose, which can lead to hyperglycemia. Monitoring glucose levels is crucial to detect and prevent hyperglycemia, a common complication associated with TPN administration. Albumin (Choice A) levels are not typically affected by TPN administration. Calcium (Choice B) and alkaline phosphatase (Choice D) are not directly impacted by TPN and are not the primary values to monitor in TPN therapy.

2. A client has a new prescription for isoniazid. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to avoid drinking alcohol. Isoniazid can cause liver damage, and alcohol consumption can increase this risk. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid alcohol while taking isoniazid to prevent potential liver complications. Choice A is incorrect because isoniazid is typically taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset. Choice C is incorrect because antacids can decrease the absorption of isoniazid. Choice D is incorrect as there is no specific recommendation to increase leafy green vegetable intake when taking isoniazid.

3. The client with diabetes mellitus has gangrene of the toes to the midfoot. Which goal should be included in this client's plan of care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Preventing infection is crucial in clients with gangrene to halt the spread of infection and avert further complications. Infections can exacerbate tissue damage and lead to systemic complications, making infection prevention a priority in the care plan for this client. Restoring skin integrity and promoting healing may not be achievable goals until the infection is under control. Improving nutrition is important for overall health but may not be the priority when the immediate concern is preventing infection.

4. The healthcare provider notes this rhythm on the client's cardiac monitor. The healthcare provider next reports that the client is experiencing which heart rhythm?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Atrial fibrillation. Atrial fibrillation is characterized by an irregular and often rapid heart rate, which can lead to poor blood flow due to ineffective contractions of the atria. Sinus bradycardia (Choice C) is a regular but slow heart rhythm originating from the sinus node. Normal sinus rhythm (Choice A) refers to a regular heartbeat originating from the sinus node. Ventricular fibrillation (Choice D) is a life-threatening arrhythmia characterized by rapid, uncoordinated contractions of the ventricles.

5. The healthcare provider assesses a client who has been prescribed furosemide (Lasix) for cardiac disease. Which electrocardiographic change would be a concern for a client taking a diuretic?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The presence of a U wave is often associated with hypokalemia, a possible side effect of diuretic therapy like furosemide. Hypokalemia can lead to U wave formation on an electrocardiogram, making the presence of U waves a concerning finding in clients taking diuretics. Tall, spiked T waves are typically seen in hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. A prolonged QT interval is more commonly associated with conditions like Long QT syndrome or certain medications, not specifically with diuretics. A widening QRS complex is usually seen in conditions affecting the conduction system of the heart, such as bundle branch blocks, rather than being directly related to diuretic use.

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