ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Answers
1. What should be done to minimize the risk of injury for a client with dementia?
- A. Ensure the client has consistent caregivers
- B. Dim the lights in the client's room
- C. Allow the client to sleep with the bedrails raised
- D. Encourage family members to stay with the client
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to ensure the client has consistent caregivers. This helps reduce confusion and stress for clients with dementia by providing familiarity and routine. Dimming the lights in the client's room (Choice B) may not directly address the risk of injury. Allowing the client to sleep with the bedrails raised (Choice C) can pose a risk if not properly monitored. Encouraging family members to stay with the client (Choice D) may not always be feasible and may not provide the necessary professional support and consistency that consistent caregivers can offer.
2. In the emergency department, a nurse is performing triage for multiple clients following a disaster in the community. To which of the following types of injuries should the nurse assign the highest priority?
- A. Below-the-knee amputation.
- B. 10 cm (4 in) laceration.
- C. Fractured tibia.
- D. 95% full-thickness body burn.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A below-the-knee amputation requires immediate attention due to the risk of hemorrhage and shock, making it the highest priority. This type of injury can lead to significant blood loss and impaired perfusion, which can be life-threatening if not addressed promptly. While a 10 cm laceration, a fractured tibia, and a 95% full-thickness body burn are serious injuries requiring urgent care, they do not pose the same immediate threat to life as a below-the-knee amputation. The laceration may require suturing to control bleeding and prevent infection, the fractured tibia needs stabilization to prevent further damage and pain, and the burn necessitates immediate management to prevent complications, but they are not as acutely life-threatening as the amputation.
3. Which dietary restriction should be taught to a client with chronic kidney disease?
- A. Increase potassium-rich foods
- B. Limit phosphorus and potassium intake
- C. Encourage increased protein intake
- D. Increase fluid intake
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Limit phosphorus and potassium intake. In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys are unable to effectively filter these minerals from the blood, leading to their accumulation and potential complications. Restricting phosphorus and potassium intake is crucial in managing the progression of the disease. Choice A is incorrect as increasing potassium-rich foods can worsen the condition. Choice C is also incorrect as excessive protein intake can put more strain on the kidneys. Choice D is not the priority; rather, fluid intake should be monitored based on individual needs and stage of kidney disease.
4. What are the complications of diabetic ketoacidosis?
- A. Electrolyte imbalance and dehydration
- B. Hypoglycemia and increased urination
- C. Kidney failure and respiratory distress
- D. Liver failure and hypertension
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Electrolyte imbalance and dehydration. Diabetic ketoacidosis can lead to imbalances in electrolytes such as potassium, sodium, and chloride, as well as dehydration due to excess urination and vomiting. These complications should be managed promptly with appropriate fluids and insulin. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hypoglycemia and increased urination are not typical complications of diabetic ketoacidosis; kidney failure and respiratory distress may occur in severe cases but are not the primary complications. Liver failure and hypertension are not directly associated with diabetic ketoacidosis.
5. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?
- A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
- B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
- C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
- D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.
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