Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is planning care for a client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

• A. Restrict the client's fluid intake.
• B. Monitor the client's deep-tendon reflexes.
• C. Place the client in the lithotomy position.
• D. Encourage the client to ambulate frequently.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's deep-tendon reflexes. Monitoring deep-tendon reflexes is crucial in clients with preeclampsia as hyperreflexia can indicate severe complications. Restricting the client's fluid intake is not recommended as hydration is essential. Placing the client in the lithotomy position can worsen preeclampsia by reducing blood flow to the heart, so it should be avoided. Encouraging the client to ambulate frequently may not be suitable for a client with preeclampsia due to the risk of falls and increased stress on the body.

2. What is the key management strategy for diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?

• A. Administer insulin
• B. Monitor blood glucose
• C. Administer IV fluids
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The key management strategy for diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) involves a comprehensive approach that includes administering insulin to lower blood glucose levels, monitoring blood glucose levels to ensure they are within the target range, and administering IV fluids to correct dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Choosing 'All of the above' as the correct answer is the most appropriate because all three interventions are essential components of DKA management. Administering insulin alone without addressing fluid status and monitoring blood glucose could lead to complications. Similarly, solely focusing on IV fluids or blood glucose monitoring without insulin administration would not effectively manage DKA.

3. How should a healthcare provider assess a patient with sepsis?

• A. Monitor vital signs and administer fluids
• B. Monitor for fever and administer antibiotics
• C. Check for tachycardia and elevated white blood cell count
• D. Administer fluids and provide nutritional support

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In sepsis, it is crucial to monitor vital signs to assess the patient's condition and administer fluids to maintain circulation. This approach helps in stabilizing blood pressure and perfusion. While monitoring for fever and administering antibiotics (choice B) is important in managing sepsis, the initial priority lies in assessing and stabilizing the patient's hemodynamic status. Checking for tachycardia and elevated white blood cell count (choice C) can be part of the assessment but does not encompass the immediate intervention needed in sepsis. Administering fluids and providing nutritional support (choice D) are essential in managing sepsis, but the primary step should be to assess the patient's condition through vital sign monitoring.

4. A nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a client who is postoperative following a hip replacement. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement to prevent venous thromboembolism?

• A. Instruct the client to perform ankle pumps
• B. Administer anticoagulant therapy as prescribed
• C. Maintain the client in a prone position
• D. Encourage the client to ambulate as tolerated

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention to prevent venous thromboembolism in a postoperative client following hip replacement is to administer anticoagulant therapy as prescribed. Anticoagulants help prevent blood clots from forming. Instructing the client to perform ankle pumps helps prevent blood clots by promoting circulation. Maintaining the client in a prone position can increase the risk of venous stasis and thrombus formation. Encouraging the client to ambulate as tolerated also helps prevent venous thromboembolism by promoting blood flow and preventing stasis.

5. What are the signs and symptoms of opioid withdrawal, and how should they be managed?

• A. Nausea, sweating, and increased heart rate; manage with methadone
• B. Pain and restlessness; manage with naloxone
• C. Hallucinations and muscle cramps; manage with clonidine
• D. Severe vomiting and seizures; manage with benzodiazepines

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The signs and symptoms of opioid withdrawal include nausea, sweating, and increased heart rate. Methadone is commonly used to manage opioid withdrawal symptoms by alleviating them. Choice B, managing with naloxone, is incorrect as naloxone is primarily used for opioid overdose reversal, not withdrawal. Choice C, managing with clonidine, is incorrect as clonidine is used to manage some symptoms of withdrawal, such as anxiety, agitation, and hypertension, but not hallucinations. Choice D, managing with benzodiazepines, is incorrect as benzodiazepines are not typically used as first-line treatment for opioid withdrawal; they may be considered in specific cases but are not a standard approach.

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