Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is planning care for a client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

• A. Restrict the client's fluid intake.
• B. Monitor the client's deep-tendon reflexes.
• C. Place the client in the lithotomy position.
• D. Encourage the client to ambulate frequently.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's deep-tendon reflexes. Monitoring deep-tendon reflexes is crucial in clients with preeclampsia as hyperreflexia can indicate severe complications. Restricting the client's fluid intake is not recommended as hydration is essential. Placing the client in the lithotomy position can worsen preeclampsia by reducing blood flow to the heart, so it should be avoided. Encouraging the client to ambulate frequently may not be suitable for a client with preeclampsia due to the risk of falls and increased stress on the body.

2. How should a healthcare professional respond to a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?

• A. Administer insulin
• B. Administer IV fluids
• C. Monitor blood glucose
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When managing a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), it is crucial to administer insulin to lower blood sugar levels, administer IV fluids to correct dehydration and electrolyte imbalances, and monitor blood glucose levels regularly to ensure they are within the target range. Therefore, all of the above options are essential components of the comprehensive treatment plan for DKA. Administering insulin alone may lower blood sugar levels but will not address the fluid and electrolyte imbalances seen in DKA. Similarly, administering IV fluids alone may help with dehydration but will not address the high blood sugar levels or the need for insulin. Monitoring blood glucose alone is not sufficient to treat DKA; it must be accompanied by appropriate interventions to address the underlying causes and complications of the condition.

3. In the emergency department, a nurse is performing triage for multiple clients following a disaster in the community. To which of the following types of injuries should the nurse assign the highest priority?

• A. Below-the-knee amputation.
• B. 10 cm (4 in) laceration.
• C. Fractured tibia.
• D. 95% full-thickness body burn.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A below-the-knee amputation requires immediate attention due to the risk of hemorrhage and shock, making it the highest priority. This type of injury can lead to significant blood loss and impaired perfusion, which can be life-threatening if not addressed promptly. While a 10 cm laceration, a fractured tibia, and a 95% full-thickness body burn are serious injuries requiring urgent care, they do not pose the same immediate threat to life as a below-the-knee amputation. The laceration may require suturing to control bleeding and prevent infection, the fractured tibia needs stabilization to prevent further damage and pain, and the burn necessitates immediate management to prevent complications, but they are not as acutely life-threatening as the amputation.

4. A client is learning to use a cane. What instruction is essential for this client?

• A. Advance the cane and the weaker leg at the same time
• B. Maintain two points of support on the ground at all times
• C. Use the cane on the weaker side for better support
• D. Advance the cane 30 to 45 cm with each step

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client learning to use a cane is to maintain two points of support on the ground at all times. This ensures better stability and reduces the risk of falls. Choice A is incorrect because advancing the cane and the weaker leg simultaneously may lead to imbalance. Choice C is incorrect because the cane should be used on the stronger side to provide support. Choice D is incorrect because there is no specific measurement for advancing the cane with each step, and the focus should be on maintaining stability.

5. A healthcare provider is caring for a client with a pressure ulcer and needs to review the client's medical history. Which of the following findings is expected?

• A. A Braden scale score of 20
• B. An albumin level of 3 g/dL
• C. A hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL
• D. A Norton scale score of 18

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL is indicative of poor nutrition, a common factor in the development of pressure ulcers. The Braden scale assesses the risk of developing pressure ulcers but does not reflect the client's medical history. Hemoglobin level is more related to oxygen-carrying capacity rather than pressure ulcer development. The Norton scale evaluates risk for developing pressure ulcers but is not typically part of a client's medical history.

Similar Questions