a nurse is teaching a client who is undergoing chemotherapy for cancer about potential adverse effects of the treatment which of the following stateme
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI NCLEX PN Predictor Test

1. A client undergoing chemotherapy for cancer is being taught about potential adverse effects of the treatment. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because hair loss is a common adverse effect of chemotherapy. Options A, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding drinking water before meals, experiencing an increase in appetite, or expecting appetite to increase are not related to the potential adverse effects of chemotherapy.

2. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient with chest pain?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing a patient with chest pain, the initial step is to assess the severity of pain and monitor the electrocardiogram (ECG) to look for signs of cardiac issues. Administering nitroglycerin and oxygen (Choice B) is a treatment option for suspected cardiac chest pain but should not precede a thorough assessment. Administering aspirin and providing pain relief (Choice C) may be indicated later, but the priority is to assess the situation first. Monitoring for nausea and administering IV fluids (Choice D) is not the initial assessment for chest pain unless there are specific indications present.

3. A client who is immobile needs interventions to prevent contractures. Which of the following interventions is appropriate?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Applying an orthotic to the client's foot is the appropriate intervention to prevent contractures in an immobile client. An orthotic helps maintain proper alignment and prevents the development of contractures by keeping the foot in the correct position. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a trochanter wedge, towel roll under the neck, and pillow under the knees are not specific interventions for preventing contractures in an immobile client.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory report of a client who is receiving filgrastim. Which of the following laboratory values should the healthcare professional monitor to determine the effectiveness of the treatment?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Filgrastim works by stimulating the production of white blood cells. Therefore, monitoring the white blood cell (WBC) count is essential to assess the effectiveness of the treatment. Choice B, serum potassium, is not directly affected by filgrastim therapy. Choice C, hemoglobin level, is important but not the primary indicator of filgrastim's effectiveness. Choice D, serum creatinine, is unrelated to the action of filgrastim and would not reflect its effectiveness.

5. What is the best nursing intervention for a patient with hyperkalemia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer potassium-wasting diuretics. Hyperkalemia, which is high potassium levels, is managed by promoting the excretion of potassium from the body. Potassium-wasting diuretics help the kidneys eliminate excess potassium. Encouraging a low-potassium diet (choice B) is important for long-term management but not the immediate intervention for hyperkalemia. Administering potassium supplements (choice C) would worsen the condition by further increasing potassium levels. Administering IV fluids (choice D) may help with hydration but does not directly address the high potassium levels characteristic of hyperkalemia.

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