Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is taking enalapril for hypertension. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Blood pressure of 150/80 mm Hg
• B. Swelling in the legs
• C. Persistent cough
• D. Heart rate of 72 beats per minute

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Persistent cough. Enalapril is known to cause a persistent dry cough as a side effect. This adverse reaction is due to the accumulation of bradykinin in the lungs, leading to irritation and cough. The nurse should report this symptom to the provider for further evaluation and possible medication adjustment. Choices A, B, and D are not directly associated with enalapril use. While a blood pressure of 150/80 mm Hg is elevated and should be monitored, it is not a direct side effect of enalapril. Swelling in the legs and a heart rate of 72 beats per minute are also not typically related to enalapril use and should be assessed but are not the priority findings to report in this scenario.

2. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

• A. Monitor for leg pain, swelling, and redness
• B. Check for calf tenderness and administer anticoagulants
• C. Check for discoloration and monitor oxygen saturation
• D. Check for numbness and provide thrombolytic therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: The correct way to assess a patient with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is to monitor for leg pain, swelling, and redness. These are common clinical manifestations of DVT. Choice B is incorrect because administering anticoagulants should be based on a confirmed diagnosis, not just suspicion. Choice C is incorrect because discoloration and oxygen saturation are not primary indicators of DVT. Choice D is incorrect because numbness is not a typical symptom of DVT, and thrombolytic therapy is not the first-line treatment for suspected DVT.

3. What are the risk factors for developing pneumonia in older adults?

• A. Immobility and decreased lung function
• B. Poor hygiene and aspiration
• C. Use of respiratory equipment and medications
• D. Poor nutritional status and compromised immune system

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Immobility and decreased lung function. Older adults with immobility and decreased lung function are at a higher risk of developing pneumonia. Immobility can lead to decreased lung expansion and impaired clearance of secretions, predisposing to pneumonia. While poor hygiene, aspiration, use of respiratory equipment, medications, poor nutritional status, and compromised immune system can also contribute to pneumonia risk, they are not as directly associated with pneumonia in older adults as immobility and decreased lung function.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client who underwent surgery for a hip fracture. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. Clear lung sounds
• B. Fever
• C. Pain in the operative leg
• D. Capillary refill of 2 seconds

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fever. Fever in a postoperative client can indicate an infection, which is a serious complication and should be reported immediately to the provider for further evaluation and management. Clear lung sounds (Choice A) are a positive finding indicating normal respiratory function. Pain in the operative leg (Choice C) is expected postoperatively and should be managed with appropriate pain relief measures. Capillary refill of 2 seconds (Choice D) is within the normal range (less than 3 seconds) and is not a concerning finding postoperatively.

5. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. International normalized ratio (INR) of 2.5
• B. Platelet count of 180,000/mm³
• C. Prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds
• D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 30 seconds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds is below the therapeutic range for warfarin and indicates a need for dosage adjustment. The correct answer is C. A normal International normalized ratio (INR) for a client on warfarin therapy is usually between 2.0 to 3.0; therefore, an INR of 2.5 is within the expected range. A platelet count of 180,000/mm³ is within the normal range (150,000 to 450,000/mm³) and does not require immediate reporting. A partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 30 seconds is also within the normal range (25-35 seconds) and does not indicate a need for urgent action.

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