Nursing Elites

1. What should a healthcare provider prioritize for a client diagnosed with bipolar disorder?

• A. Monitor for hyperactivity
• B. Monitor for signs of depression
• C. Monitor for changes in self-esteem
• D. Monitor for changes in energy levels

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When caring for a client diagnosed with bipolar disorder, the priority is to monitor for signs of depression. Individuals with bipolar disorder are at risk of severe depressive episodes, making it crucial to watch for signs of depression. While changes in energy levels and self-esteem are common in bipolar disorder, they are not the primary focus. Hyperactivity is a characteristic of the manic phase of bipolar disorder, so monitoring for depression is the priority in this case.

2. A nurse is teaching a client how to administer enoxaparin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Inject the medication into the muscle of the thigh
• B. Massage the injection site after administration
• C. Pinch the skin before injecting
• D. Administer the medication at the same time each day

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for administering enoxaparin is to pinch the skin before injecting. Pinching the skin helps create a proper fold for subcutaneous injections like enoxaparin, ensuring proper delivery of the medication into the subcutaneous tissue. Choice A is incorrect because enoxaparin should be administered subcutaneously, not into the muscle. Injecting it into the muscle can lead to complications. Choice B is incorrect because massaging the injection site after administration can increase the risk of bleeding or bruising due to the anticoagulant properties of enoxaparin. Choice D is incorrect as it is a general instruction and does not specifically relate to the administration of enoxaparin.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postoperative following an appendectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Urine output of 20 mL/hr.
• B. Temperature of 36.5°C (97.7°F).
• C. Sanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing.
• D. WBC count of 9,000/mm3.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Urine output of 20 mL/hr. A urine output less than 30 mL/hr can indicate decreased renal perfusion, potentially due to hypovolemia or other issues, and should be reported to the provider. B: A temperature of 36.5°C (97.7°F) falls within the normal range and does not require immediate reporting. C: Sanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing is expected in the early postoperative period and should be monitored but does not need immediate reporting unless excessive. D: A WBC count of 9,000/mm3 is within the normal range and does not indicate an immediate concern.

4. A nurse is caring for an infant who is receiving IV fluids for dehydration. Which of the following should the nurse recognize as a positive response to the therapy?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Hypotension
• C. Increased urine output
• D. Diarrhea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Increased urine output is a positive sign that the IV fluids are effectively treating dehydration. Tachycardia (choice A) and hypotension (choice B) are signs of dehydration and would not be considered positive responses to therapy. Diarrhea (choice D) can worsen dehydration and is not a positive response to IV fluid therapy.

5. What is the main symptom of left-sided heart failure?

• A. Shortness of breath
• B. Edema
• C. Increased heart rate
• D. Decreased urine output

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Shortness of breath is the main symptom of left-sided heart failure because it results from pulmonary congestion due to fluid buildup in the lungs. Edema, increased heart rate, and decreased urine output are associated with right-sided heart failure rather than left-sided heart failure.

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