ATI LPN
PN ATI Comprehensive Predictor
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is in the early stages of hypovolemic shock. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Heart rate 60/min
- B. Increased urinary output
- C. Increased respiratory rate
- D. Hypothermia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In the early stages of hypovolemic shock, the body initiates compensatory mechanisms to maintain perfusion. One of these mechanisms is an increased respiratory rate to improve oxygen delivery. This helps to offset the decreased circulating blood volume. A heart rate of 60/min (choice A) is not expected in hypovolemic shock; instead, tachycardia is a common finding due to the body's attempt to maintain cardiac output. Increased urinary output (choice B) is not typically seen in hypovolemic shock as the body tries to conserve fluid. Hypothermia (choice D) is usually a late sign of shock when the body's compensatory mechanisms are failing, and perfusion is severely compromised.
2. A nurse is preparing to perform a sterile dressing change. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when setting up the sterile field?
- A. Place the cap from the solution sterile side up on a clean surface.
- B. Open the outermost flap of the sterile kit away from the body.
- C. Place the sterile dressing within 1.25 cm (0.5 in) of the edge of the sterile field.
- D. Set up the sterile field 5 cm (2 in) above waist level.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To maintain the sterility of the field, the nurse should place the cap from the solution sterile side up on a clean surface. This action helps prevent contamination. Choice B is incorrect because opening the outermost flap toward the body increases the risk of introducing contaminants onto the sterile field. Choice C is incorrect as the sterile dressing should be placed at least 2.5 cm (1 in) from the edge of the sterile field to prevent accidental contamination. Choice D is incorrect because setting up the sterile field above waist level could lead to inadvertent contact and compromise the field's sterility.
3. How should a healthcare provider assess and manage a patient with anemia?
- A. Monitor hemoglobin levels and provide iron supplements
- B. Administer B12 injections
- C. Monitor for signs of infection and administer folic acid
- D. Administer oxygen therapy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Question: To assess and manage a patient with anemia, monitoring hemoglobin levels and providing iron supplements are crucial. Anemia is commonly caused by iron deficiency, making iron supplementation a cornerstone of treatment. B12 injections (Choice B) are more relevant for treating megaloblastic anemia, not the typical iron-deficiency anemia. Monitoring for signs of infection and administering folic acid (Choice C) are important in specific types of anemia like megaloblastic anemia, but not the first-line approach for anemia management. Administering oxygen therapy (Choice D) is not the primary intervention for anemia unless severe hypoxemia is present, which is not typically seen in anemia.
4. Which of the following is a key consideration when providing wound care for a client with a pressure ulcer?
- A. Cover the wound with a dry, sterile dressing
- B. Perform a wound culture before applying ointment
- C. Cleanse the wound with alcohol
- D. Cover the wound with a wet-to-dry dressing
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Performing a wound culture before applying ointment is crucial when providing wound care for a client with a pressure ulcer. This step helps identify the presence of any infection, allowing for appropriate treatment. Choice A is incorrect because covering the wound with a dry, sterile dressing may not address potential infections. Choice C is incorrect as cleansing the wound with alcohol can be too harsh and drying to the surrounding skin. Choice D is incorrect because covering the wound with a wet-to-dry dressing is not typically recommended for pressure ulcers, as it can cause trauma to the wound bed during removal.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a calcium level of 8.0 mg/dL. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Constipation
- B. Absent deep-tendon reflexes
- C. Nausea and vomiting
- D. Tingling of the extremities
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Correct! A calcium level of 8.0 mg/dL indicates hypocalcemia. Hypocalcemia can lead to increased neuromuscular excitability, manifesting as tingling of the extremities. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect findings associated with other electrolyte imbalances or conditions and are not typically related to hypocalcemia. Constipation is commonly seen in hypokalemia, absent deep-tendon reflexes are associated with hypermagnesemia, and nausea and vomiting are more indicative of hypercalcemia.
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