Nursing Elites

1. What are the principles of aseptic technique in wound care?

• A. Use sterile gloves and a clean dressing
• B. Apply a clean dressing using sterile scissors
• C. Wash hands thoroughly before applying the dressing
• D. Use a clean glove and avoid contact with the wound

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Use sterile gloves and a clean dressing.' Aseptic technique in wound care requires the use of sterile gloves to prevent infection. Choice B is incorrect as the method of application does not primarily focus on maintaining asepsis. Choice C, while important for infection control, is not specific to aseptic technique in wound care. Choice D is incorrect because using a single clean glove does not ensure the level of sterility needed for aseptic wound care.

2. Which term specifically refers to positive actions taken to help others?

• A. Beneficence
• B. Justice
• C. Autonomy
• D. Non-maleficence

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, 'Beneficence.' Beneficence is the ethical principle that involves taking positive actions to help others. Choice B, 'Justice,' pertains to fairness and equity in treatment, not specifically positive actions. Choice C, 'Autonomy,' relates to respecting individuals' rights to make their own decisions, not necessarily taking actions to help others. Choice D, 'Non-maleficence,' focuses on the obligation to avoid causing harm rather than actively helping others.

3. A nurse is caring for an infant who is receiving IV fluids for dehydration. Which of the following should the nurse recognize as a positive response to the therapy?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Hypotension
• C. Increased urine output
• D. Diarrhea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Increased urine output is a positive sign that the IV fluids are effectively treating dehydration. Tachycardia (choice A) and hypotension (choice B) are signs of dehydration and would not be considered positive responses to therapy. Diarrhea (choice D) can worsen dehydration and is not a positive response to IV fluid therapy.

4. A healthcare provider is caring for a client with a pressure ulcer and needs to review the client's medical history. Which of the following findings is expected?

• A. A Braden scale score of 20
• B. An albumin level of 3 g/dL
• C. A hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL
• D. A Norton scale score of 18

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL is indicative of poor nutrition, a common factor in the development of pressure ulcers. The Braden scale assesses the risk of developing pressure ulcers but does not reflect the client's medical history. Hemoglobin level is more related to oxygen-carrying capacity rather than pressure ulcer development. The Norton scale evaluates risk for developing pressure ulcers but is not typically part of a client's medical history.

5. What are the early signs of heart failure in a patient?

• A. Shortness of breath and weight gain
• B. Fatigue and chest pain
• C. Nausea and vomiting
• D. Cough and elevated blood pressure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Shortness of breath and weight gain. Early signs of heart failure typically manifest as shortness of breath due to fluid accumulation in the lungs and weight gain due to fluid retention in the body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Fatigue and chest pain are symptoms commonly associated with heart conditions but are not specific early signs of heart failure. Nausea and vomiting are not typically early signs of heart failure. Cough can be a symptom of heart failure, but it is usually associated with other symptoms like shortness of breath rather than being an isolated early sign. Elevated blood pressure is not an early sign of heart failure; in fact, heart failure is more commonly associated with low blood pressure.

Similar Questions