a nurse is caring for a client who has multiple fractures following a motor vehicle crash for which of the following client statements should the nurs
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 with NGN

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has multiple fractures following a motor-vehicle crash. For which of the following client statements should the nurse recommend a referral to an occupational therapist?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The client's frustration with opening a milk carton indicates difficulty with activities of daily living, which is a common concern addressed by occupational therapists. Choices A, C, and D are related to fine motor skills, which may also be addressed by an occupational therapist but are not as directly linked to activities of daily living as struggling with tasks like opening containers.

2. What are the key differences between hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hypoglycemia typically presents with sweating and trembling, while hyperglycemia is characterized by frequent urination and thirst. Therefore, the correct key differences between hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia are that hypoglycemia includes symptoms like sweating and trembling, while hyperglycemia involves symptoms such as frequent urination and thirst. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately represent the characteristic symptoms of hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia, as stated in the question.

3. A nurse is caring for a client with a pressure ulcer. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to cleanse the wound from the center outwards. This technique helps prevent infection and promotes healing by ensuring that any contaminants are moved away from the center of the wound. Administering a protein supplement (choice A) or increasing protein intake in the client's diet (choice B) may be beneficial for overall healing but are not the most appropriate interventions specifically for wound care. Increasing IV fluid intake (choice C) is important for hydration but is not the most appropriate intervention for managing a pressure ulcer.

4. A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following assessment findings indicates that the medication is effective?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The absence of adventitious breath sounds indicates that furosemide is effective in managing heart failure. Adventitious breath sounds such as crackles indicate fluid accumulation in the lungs, a common complication of heart failure. Therefore, the absence of these abnormal sounds suggests that furosemide is effectively reducing fluid overload. Elevated blood pressure (choice A) is not a desired outcome in heart failure management. Weight gain (choice C) and decreased urine output (choice D) are signs of fluid retention and ineffective diuresis, indicating that furosemide is not working effectively.

5. Which dietary instruction is appropriate for a client with chronic kidney disease?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Limiting the intake of phosphorus-rich foods is appropriate for a client with chronic kidney disease. In individuals with chronic kidney disease, the kidneys cannot filter phosphorus effectively, leading to a buildup in the blood. This can result in bone and heart problems. Therefore, reducing phosphorus intake is crucial to prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing potassium intake may be harmful as potassium levels can accumulate in the blood with impaired kidney function. Encouraging protein-rich foods may not be suitable as excessive protein intake can strain the kidneys. Advising to increase fluid intake should be done cautiously as individuals with chronic kidney disease may need to restrict fluids based on their stage of the disease.

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