ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 with NGN
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has multiple fractures following a motor-vehicle crash. For which of the following client statements should the nurse recommend a referral to an occupational therapist?
- A. I can't brush my teeth properly
- B. I am so frustrated I can't open my milk carton
- C. I can't hold a pencil
- D. I can't write anymore
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The client's frustration with opening a milk carton indicates difficulty with activities of daily living, which is a common concern addressed by occupational therapists. Choices A, C, and D are related to fine motor skills, which may also be addressed by an occupational therapist but are not as directly linked to activities of daily living as struggling with tasks like opening containers.
2. The nurse is using the New Ballard Score to assess the gestational age of a newborn delivered 4 hours ago. The infant's gestational age is 33 weeks based on early ultrasound and last menstrual period. The nurse expects the infant to exhibit which of the following?
- A. Full sole creases, nails extending beyond the fingertips, scarf sign showing the elbow beyond the midline
- B. Testes located in the upper scrotum, rugae covering the scrotum, vernix covering the entire body
- C. Ear cartilage folded over, lanugo present over much of the body, slow recoil time
- D. 1 cm breast bud, peeling skin and veins not visible, rapid recoil of legs and arms to extension
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Ear cartilage folded over, lanugo present over much of the body, and slow recoil time are all characteristics of a preterm infant. A is incorrect because full sole creases, nails extending beyond the fingertips, and scarf sign showing the elbow beyond the midline are features of a term infant. B is incorrect as testes located in the upper scrotum, rugae covering the scrotum, and vernix covering the entire body are also indicative of a term infant. D is incorrect because a 1 cm breast bud, peeling skin and veins not visible, and rapid recoil of legs and arms to extension are characteristics seen in a more mature infant, not a preterm newborn.
3. A client at 36 weeks of gestation is suspected of having placenta previa. Which of the following findings support this diagnosis?
- A. Painless red vaginal bleeding
- B. Increasing abdominal pain with a non-relaxed uterus
- C. Abdominal pain with scant red vaginal bleeding
- D. Intermittent abdominal pain following the passage of bloody mucus
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Painless red vaginal bleeding is a hallmark sign of placenta previa. In this condition, the placenta partially or completely covers the cervical opening, leading to painless, bright red bleeding due to the separation of the placenta from the uterine wall. Other types of bleeding, such as those associated with abdominal pain or mucus passage, are more indicative of conditions like placental abruption rather than placenta previa. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they describe findings more consistent with placental abruption rather than placenta previa.
4. A healthcare professional in a provider's office is reviewing the medical record of a client who is in her first trimester of pregnancy. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional identify as a risk factor for the development of preeclampsia?
- A. Singleton pregnancy
- B. BMI of 20
- C. Maternal age of 32 years
- D. Pregestational diabetes mellitus
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Pregestational diabetes mellitus is a significant risk factor for the development of preeclampsia in pregnant individuals. Preeclampsia is more common in women with preexisting conditions such as diabetes, hypertension, renal disease, lupus, or rheumatoid arthritis. Singleton pregnancy, a BMI of 20, or maternal age of 32 years are not considered significant risk factors for developing preeclampsia.
5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has been taking furosemide. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Dry cough
- C. Hypokalemia
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Hypokalemia is a known side effect of furosemide, a loop diuretic. Furosemide causes increased excretion of potassium in the urine, leading to low potassium levels in the body which can result in serious complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Therefore, any signs or symptoms of hypokalemia should be promptly reported to the healthcare provider for appropriate management. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because weight gain, dry cough, and increased appetite are not typically associated with furosemide use and are not concerning side effects that require immediate reporting to the provider.
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