ATI LPN
ATI Comprehensive Predictor PN
1. Which assessment finding is expected with myxedema?
- A. Increased pulse rate
- B. Decreased temperature
- C. Fine tremors
- D. Weight loss
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Myxedema is characterized by a decreased metabolic rate, leading to manifestations such as decreased temperature. Therefore, the correct assessment finding expected with myxedema is a decreased temperature. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because myxedema typically presents with a decreased pulse rate, not an increased pulse rate, absence of fine tremors (which are more common in hyperthyroidism), and weight gain rather than weight loss.
2. A healthcare provider is educating a client about the use of finasteride. Which of the following should be included?
- A. It is used to treat hypertension
- B. It can cause hair loss
- C. It may take several months to see results
- D. It is safe for use during pregnancy
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Correct answer: The healthcare provider should inform the client that finasteride may take several months to show therapeutic effects for conditions like hair loss or benign prostatic hyperplasia. Choice A is incorrect as finasteride is not used to treat hypertension. Choice B is incorrect because finasteride is actually used to treat hair loss, not cause it. Choice D is incorrect as finasteride is contraindicated during pregnancy due to the risk of harm to a male fetus.
3. After attaching the AED to a 7-year-old child in cardiac arrest, you push the analyze button and receive a shock advised message. After delivering the shock, you should:
- A. assess for a carotid pulse.
- B. open the airway and ventilate.
- C. immediately perform CPR.
- D. reanalyze the cardiac rhythm.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: After delivering a shock, it is crucial to immediately resume CPR. CPR helps circulate oxygenated blood to vital organs until the AED prompts you to stop for further rhythm analysis. This continuous cycle of CPR and defibrillation maximizes the chances of restoring a normal cardiac rhythm and improving the child's chances of survival. Assessing for a carotid pulse is not necessary after a shock as pulse checks are often unreliable during resuscitation. Opening the airway and ventilating is not the immediate step after delivering a shock as CPR takes precedence. Reanalyzing the cardiac rhythm should be done only when prompted by the AED after a set period of CPR.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who reports burning around the peripheral IV site. Which finding should the nurse identify as a manifestation of infiltration?
- A. Redness at the site
- B. Warmth around the site
- C. Edema
- D. Pain at the site
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Edema at the IV site indicates that IV solution has leaked into the extravascular tissue, which is a sign of infiltration. Redness, warmth, and pain at the site are more indicative of phlebitis, not infiltration. Phlebitis is characterized by redness, warmth, and pain along the vein where the IV is placed, while infiltration involves the leaking of IV fluids into the surrounding tissue.
5. The client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which electrolyte imbalance is the nurse most likely to monitor for?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypernatremia
- C. Hypokalemia
- D. Hyponatremia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly causes potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. The nurse should closely monitor for decreased potassium levels in a client receiving furosemide to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias or muscle weakness. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hypernatremia (Choice B) refers to high sodium levels and is not the primary concern with furosemide. Hyponatremia (Choice D) is low sodium levels, which can occur but is less common than hypokalemia in clients taking furosemide.
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