Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has dementia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take to minimize the risk for injury for this client?

• A. Use a bed exit alarm system
• B. Raise all four side rails while the client is in bed
• C. Apply soft wrist restraints
• D. Dim the lights in the client's room

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Using a bed exit alarm system. A bed exit alarm alerts staff when a client with dementia attempts to leave the bed, reducing the risk of falls. Choice B is incorrect because raising all four side rails can lead to restraint-related injuries and is not recommended. Choice C is incorrect as applying wrist restraints should be avoided due to the risk of injury and decreased mobility. Choice D is incorrect as dimming the lights in the client's room does not directly address the risk of injury associated with dementia.

2. What should be included in dietary teaching for a client with chronic kidney disease?

• A. Increase potassium-rich foods in the diet
• B. Limit phosphorus and potassium intake
• C. Encourage protein-rich foods to improve nutrition
• D. Increase calcium-rich foods in the diet

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to limit phosphorus and potassium intake for a client with chronic kidney disease. In renal insufficiency, the kidneys struggle to excrete these minerals, leading to their buildup in the blood, which can be harmful. Limiting phosphorus and potassium intake helps prevent further kidney damage and manage the progression of chronic kidney disease. Encouraging protein-rich foods (Choice C) may be counterproductive as excessive protein intake can burden the kidneys. Increasing potassium-rich foods (Choice A) is incorrect as high potassium levels can be detrimental in kidney disease. Increasing calcium-rich foods (Choice D) is not typically a focus in dietary teaching for chronic kidney disease unless there is a specific deficiency or need, as excessive calcium intake can also be harmful to kidney function.

3. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client with dementia who frequently becomes agitated. What should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Investigate the client's fluid and electrolyte balance
• B. Investigate the client's recent medication changes
• C. Investigate recent changes in cognitive functioning
• D. Investigate the client's psychosocial environment

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to investigate the client's recent medication changes. In a client with dementia who frequently becomes agitated, medication changes can often be a significant factor contributing to their behavior. Checking recent medication changes can help identify if any specific medication is causing or exacerbating the agitation. Choice A about fluid and electrolyte balance is less likely to be the priority unless there are specific indications in the medical record. Choice C, investigating recent changes in cognitive functioning, may be important but addressing the agitation first is a more immediate concern. Choice D, investigating the client's psychosocial environment, is also important but may not directly address the immediate cause of the agitation as medication changes could.

4. A nurse has administered medications to a group of clients. For which of the following client situations should the nurse complete an incident report?

• A. Administering acetaminophen to an NPO client
• B. Administering insulin lispro to an NPO client
• C. Administering medication to the incorrect client
• D. Administering anticoagulants without checking INR

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because administering insulin lispro to an NPO client can lead to hypoglycemia due to the lack of food to balance the medication. This situation poses a serious risk to the client's safety and should be documented in an incident report. Choice A is not as critical as insulin administration for an NPO client. Choice C is also serious but does not pose an immediate risk to the client's health. Choice D, administering anticoagulants without checking the INR, is important but does not require an incident report unless adverse effects occur, as it may not immediately endanger the client's life.

5. What are the risk factors for the development of pressure ulcers, and how can they be prevented?

• A. Immobility and poor nutrition
• B. Increased mobility and proper hygiene
• C. Excess moisture and lack of movement
• D. Frequent turning and repositioning

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Immobility and poor nutrition are significant risk factors for pressure ulcers. Immobility leads to prolonged pressure on certain body areas, increasing the risk of tissue damage. Poor nutrition can impair skin integrity and the body's ability to heal. Prevention strategies include frequent turning and repositioning to relieve pressure points. Choice B is incorrect because increased mobility actually reduces the risk of pressure ulcers. Choice C is incorrect as excess moisture can contribute to skin breakdown, but it is not a primary risk factor. Choice D is incorrect as frequent turning and repositioning are part of the prevention measures, not risk factors.

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