Nursing Elites

1. What are the key interventions in managing a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?

• A. Administer insulin and fluids
• B. Administer oral hypoglycemics
• C. Administer glucagon
• D. Administer insulin and monitor blood glucose

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention in managing a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is to administer insulin and fluids. Insulin is crucial to correct hyperglycemia, while fluids are important to address dehydration. Administering oral hypoglycemics (Choice B) is not appropriate in the management of DKA as the patient may not be able to absorb oral medications due to gastrointestinal issues. Glucagon (Choice C) is not indicated in the treatment of DKA. Although monitoring blood glucose (Choice D) is important, it is not the sole key intervention for managing DKA; administering insulin and fluids are the primary interventions.

2. A nurse is reinforcing discharge teaching with a client who is postoperative following an open radical prostatectomy. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Perform Kegel exercises daily
• B. Perform light exercise for 3 hours each day
• C. Avoid bathing for 3 days
• D. Avoid sitting in a chair for more than 2 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Perform Kegel exercises daily. After a radical prostatectomy, Kegel exercises are beneficial as they help strengthen the pelvic floor muscles, aiding in urinary control and recovery. Choice B is incorrect because recommending 3 hours of light exercise daily may not be suitable immediately postoperatively. Choice C is incorrect as personal hygiene, including bathing, is important for postoperative care. Choice D is incorrect because sitting for more than 2 hours does not specifically relate to the client's postoperative care needs.

3. A healthcare provider is caring for a client with a pressure ulcer and needs to review the client's medical history. Which of the following findings is expected?

• A. A Braden scale score of 20
• B. An albumin level of 3 g/dL
• C. A hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL
• D. A Norton scale score of 18

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL is indicative of poor nutrition, a common factor in the development of pressure ulcers. The Braden scale assesses the risk of developing pressure ulcers but does not reflect the client's medical history. Hemoglobin level is more related to oxygen-carrying capacity rather than pressure ulcer development. The Norton scale evaluates risk for developing pressure ulcers but is not typically part of a client's medical history.

4. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement for a client with hyperkalemia?

• A. Administer calcium gluconate
• B. Increase fluid intake to promote potassium excretion
• C. Administer a diuretic
• D. Administer sodium bicarbonate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with hyperkalemia is to administer calcium gluconate. Calcium gluconate helps counteract the effects of hyperkalemia by stabilizing the cardiac cell membrane. Increasing fluid intake (Choice B) may not effectively lower potassium levels. Administering a diuretic (Choice C) or sodium bicarbonate (Choice D) is not the primary treatment for hyperkalemia and may not address the immediate need to lower potassium levels.

5. What are early indicators of dehydration?

• A. Dry mouth
• B. Increased thirst
• C. Decreased urine output
• D. Dizziness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, dry mouth, and B, increased thirst are early indicators of dehydration. Dry mouth occurs when the body is dehydrated, and increased thirst is the body's way of trying to increase fluid intake to combat dehydration. Choices C and D, decreased urine output and dizziness, can be signs of severe dehydration but are not typically considered early indicators.

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