Nursing Elites

1. In planning the turning schedule for a bedfast client, it is most important for the nurse to consider what assessment finding?

• A. 4+ pitting edema of both lower extremities.
• B. A Braden risk assessment scale rating score of ten.
• C. Warm, dry skin with a fever of 100° F.
• D. Hypoactive bowel sounds with infrequent bowel movements.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A low Braden score indicates a high risk for pressure ulcers, making regular turning crucial to prevent skin breakdown.

2. A 60-year-old man presents with fatigue, weight gain, and constipation. Laboratory tests reveal low TSH and high free T4 levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Hypothyroidism
• B. Hyperthyroidism
• C. Thyroiditis
• D. Thyroid cancer

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The combination of low TSH and high free T4 levels is characteristic of hyperthyroidism, not hypothyroidism. Hyperthyroidism is associated with symptoms such as fatigue, weight loss, and diarrhea, contrasting with the typical presentation of hypothyroidism. Therefore, in this case, the most likely diagnosis is hyperthyroidism.

3. A client with liver cirrhosis is being educated about managing their condition. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will avoid drinking alcohol
• B. I need to limit my salt intake
• C. I can take acetaminophen for pain
• D. I should eat a balanced diet

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clients with liver cirrhosis should avoid acetaminophen because it can cause further liver damage. Acetaminophen is metabolized in the liver, and in individuals with liver disease, it can lead to liver toxicity. Therefore, clients with liver cirrhosis should use alternative pain medications that do not affect the liver, such as nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) or opioids as prescribed by their healthcare provider. Choices A, B, and D are correct statements for managing liver cirrhosis. Avoiding alcohol helps prevent further liver damage, limiting salt intake helps manage fluid retention and complications like ascites, and eating a balanced diet supports overall health and helps prevent malnutrition.

4. A 35-year-old woman presents with abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss. She has a history of recurrent mouth ulcers and a perianal fistula. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Ulcerative colitis
• B. Irritable bowel syndrome
• C. Crohn's disease
• D. Diverticulitis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The combination of symptoms including recurrent mouth ulcers, perianal fistula, abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss strongly suggests Crohn's disease. These extra-intestinal manifestations are characteristic of Crohn's disease, a chronic inflammatory condition that can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract. Ulcerative colitis primarily involves the colon, while irritable bowel syndrome is a functional disorder without the inflammatory component seen in Crohn's disease. Diverticulitis typically presents with localized left lower quadrant pain and is less likely to cause mouth ulcers and perianal fistulas.

5. When creating a care plan for a 70-year-old obese client admitted to the postsurgical unit following a colon resection, the client's age and increased body mass index put them at increased risk for which complication in the postoperative period?

• A. Hyperglycemia
• B. Azotemia
• C. Falls
• D. Infection

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Infection is a significant risk in obese, elderly clients due to decreased immunity and increased healing time, making them more susceptible to postoperative infections. Proper infection prevention measures should be a priority in the care plan for this client to minimize this risk.

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