ATI LPN
Nutrition For PN Nursing ATI
1. The rate of gastric emptying depends on the:
- A. time of day food is consumed.
- B. composition of food consumed.
- C. rate of food consumption.
- D. frequency of eating.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The rate at which the stomach empties its contents is primarily determined by the composition of the food consumed. Foods high in fat and protein tend to slow down gastric emptying, while foods high in carbohydrates usually pass through more quickly. Therefore, the composition of food consumed directly impacts the rate of gastric emptying. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly affect the rate of gastric emptying.
2. During which step are plans formulated for solving community problems?
- A. Mobilization
- B. Community organization
- C. Follow-up/extension
- D. Core group formation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Community organization is the step where community assemblies occur. It is during these assemblies that the community formalizes its organization and develops plans for community action to address a community health issue. This step is crucial for coordinating efforts and resources towards solving community problems effectively.
3. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer a beta blocker to a client with hypertension. What parameter should be checked before administering the medication?
- A. Serum potassium level
- B. Apical pulse
- C. Oxygen saturation
- D. Pupil reaction to light
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Before administering a beta blocker, it is crucial to check the apical pulse. Beta blockers have the potential to slow down the heart rate, making it essential to assess the pulse rate to ensure it is within the safe range before giving the medication. Checking the serum potassium level (choice A) is important when administering certain medications, but it is not specifically required before giving a beta blocker. Oxygen saturation (choice C) and pupil reaction to light (choice D) are not directly related to monitoring parameters for beta blocker administration.
4. The healthcare professional is caring for a client with heart failure who is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Heart rate of 58 beats per minute.
- B. Nausea and vomiting.
- C. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
- D. Shortness of breath.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Nausea and vomiting are common signs of digoxin toxicity, which can lead to serious complications like dysrhythmias. Prompt intervention is crucial to prevent further harm to the client. Choice A, a heart rate of 58 beats per minute, although slightly lower than normal, may be appropriate for a client on digoxin. Choice C, a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg, is within normal limits and does not indicate an immediate need for intervention. Choice D, shortness of breath, is a common symptom in heart failure and requires monitoring but is not as indicative of digoxin toxicity as nausea and vomiting.
5. How should a healthcare professional assess and manage a patient with acute renal failure?
- A. Monitor urine output and administer diuretics
- B. Administer IV fluids and restrict potassium intake
- C. Monitor electrolyte levels and provide dietary education
- D. Administer potassium and restrict fluids
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In acute renal failure, it is crucial to monitor urine output to assess kidney function and fluid balance. Administering diuretics helps manage fluid levels by promoting urine production. Choice B is incorrect because administering IV fluids can worsen fluid overload in renal failure patients, and restricting potassium intake is not typically the initial approach. Choice C is not the primary intervention but is important for long-term management. Choice D is incorrect as administering potassium can be dangerous in renal failure, and restricting fluids can lead to dehydration.
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