ATI LPN
Adult Medical Surgical ATI
1. The patient described in the preceding questions has a positive H. pylori antibody blood test. She is compliant with the medical regimen you prescribe. Although her symptoms initially respond, she returns to see you six months later with the same symptoms. Which of the following statements is correct?
- A. She is at high risk for reinfection with H. pylori.
- B. A positive serum IgG indicates that eradication of H. pylori was unsuccessful.
- C. The urease breath test is an ideal test to document failure of eradication.
- D. Dyspepsia usually improves with H. pylori eradication.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Reinfection with H. pylori is rare, and the persistence of infection usually indicates poor compliance with the medical regimen or antibiotic resistance. A positive serum IgG may persist indefinitely and cannot alone determine the failure of eradication. However, a decrease in quantitative IgG levels has been used to confirm treatment success. The urease breath test is recommended to assess the failure of eradication as it can detect the presence of H. pylori in the stomach, indicating treatment failure if positive.
2. A 30-year-old woman has severe lower abdominal pain and light vaginal bleeding. She tells you that her last menstrual period was 2 months ago. On the basis of these findings, you should suspect:
- A. a normal pregnancy.
- B. a ruptured ovarian cyst.
- C. an ectopic pregnancy.
- D. a spontaneous abortion.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Severe lower abdominal pain, light vaginal bleeding, and a history of missed periods are concerning for an ectopic pregnancy. The absence of a normal menstrual period along with these symptoms raises suspicion for an ectopic pregnancy, which requires immediate medical attention due to the risk of rupture and life-threatening complications. A normal pregnancy would typically present with different symptoms such as a positive pregnancy test and typical signs of early pregnancy. A ruptured ovarian cyst may present with similar symptoms but typically lacks the history of missed periods. A spontaneous abortion usually involves heavier bleeding and tissue passage, which is not described in this scenario.
3. A client with hyperkalemia is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should increase my intake of potassium-rich foods.
- B. I should decrease my intake of potassium-rich foods.
- C. I should increase my intake of sodium-rich foods.
- D. I should decrease my intake of sodium-rich foods.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Correct! Hyperkalemia is a condition characterized by high levels of potassium in the blood. To manage hyperkalemia, it is essential to decrease the intake of potassium-rich foods since excess potassium can worsen the condition. By understanding the need to decrease potassium-rich foods, the client shows comprehension of the dietary management required for hyperkalemia. Choice A is incorrect because increasing potassium-rich foods would exacerbate hyperkalemia. Choice C is incorrect since increasing sodium-rich foods is unrelated to managing hyperkalemia and could potentially lead to other health issues. Choice D is incorrect as decreasing sodium-rich foods is not the primary focus when managing hyperkalemia.
4. A client at 36 weeks of gestation is suspected of having placenta previa. Which of the following findings support this diagnosis?
- A. Painless red vaginal bleeding
- B. Increasing abdominal pain with a non-relaxed uterus
- C. Abdominal pain with scant red vaginal bleeding
- D. Intermittent abdominal pain following the passage of bloody mucus
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Painless red vaginal bleeding is a hallmark sign of placenta previa. In this condition, the placenta partially or completely covers the cervical opening, leading to painless, bright red bleeding due to the separation of the placenta from the uterine wall. Other types of bleeding, such as those associated with abdominal pain or mucus passage, are more indicative of conditions like placental abruption rather than placenta previa. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they describe findings more consistent with placental abruption rather than placenta previa.
5. The client will wear a Holter monitor for continuous cardiac monitoring over the next 24 hours. What action should the nurse take to assist the client?
- A. Shave the front of the client's chest
- B. Give the client a device holder to wear around the waist
- C. Teach the client to rest as much as possible during the next 24 hours
- D. Tell the client to cover the monitor in plastic wrap before taking a bath
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Providing the client with a device holder to wear around the waist allows them to comfortably carry the Holter monitor while engaging in normal activities throughout the 24-hour monitoring period. This approach supports the client's mobility and ensures the monitor is securely in place for accurate readings. Shaving the front of the client's chest is unnecessary and not a standard practice for Holter monitor placement. Instructing the client to rest as much as possible does not promote normal daily activities which are important for accurate monitoring. Covering the monitor in plastic wrap before bathing is not recommended as it may affect the functionality of the device.
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