Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is informed during shift report that a client is experiencing occasional ventricular dysrhythmias. The nurse reviews the client's laboratory results, recalling that which electrolyte imbalance could be responsible for this development?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hypernatremia
• C. Hypochloremia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hypokalemia, which is low potassium levels, can disrupt the normal electrical activity of the heart and lead to ventricular dysrhythmias. Potassium plays a crucial role in maintaining the heart's rhythm, and a deficiency can result in dangerous heart rhythm abnormalities. Hypernatremia (Choice B), which is high sodium levels, does not directly impact heart rhythm. Hypochloremia (Choice C), which is low chloride levels, is not typically associated with ventricular dysrhythmias. Hypercalcemia (Choice D), which is high calcium levels, is not a common cause of ventricular dysrhythmias.

2. A client with a new prescription for simvastatin is receiving teaching from a healthcare provider. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. 'I should take this medication in the evening.'
• B. 'I should avoid drinking grapefruit juice.'
• C. 'I should expect my urine to be red-orange while taking this medication.'
• D. 'I will need to take this medication for the rest of my life.'

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Taking simvastatin in the evening is recommended because cholesterol synthesis increases at night. This timing maximizes the effectiveness of the medication in lowering cholesterol levels. Choice B is incorrect because grapefruit juice should be avoided with certain statins, but simvastatin is not significantly affected by grapefruit juice. Choice C is incorrect as red-orange urine is not an expected side effect of simvastatin. Choice D is incorrect because simvastatin is typically prescribed for managing cholesterol levels and may not need to be taken for the rest of the client's life.

3. A client has a new prescription for sertraline. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should take this medication at bedtime.
• B. I may experience sexual dysfunction.
• C. I should avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
• D. I may experience weight loss while taking this medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Sexual dysfunction is a common side effect of sertraline. When the client mentions this potential side effect, it indicates an understanding of the teaching about the medication's effects. This response shows awareness of a significant adverse effect that the client should be informed about when starting sertraline. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking sertraline at bedtime, avoiding grapefruit juice, or experiencing weight loss are not key teaching points associated with this medication.

4. When preparing to administer a controlled substance, which of the following actions is required?

• A. Check the client's identification bracelet.
• B. Check the client's allergy status.
• C. Have a second nurse witness disposal of the medication.
• D. Document the administration in the client's medical record.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When administering controlled substances, it is crucial to have a second nurse witness the disposal of the medication. This measure ensures proper handling, reduces the risk of diversion, and promotes compliance with regulations regarding controlled substances. Having a second nurse witness the disposal is a safeguard to maintain accountability and prevent any potential misuse or errors during the disposal process. Checking the client's identification bracelet and allergy status are important steps in medication administration but are not specifically required for controlled substances. Documenting the administration in the client's medical record is essential but does not specifically relate to the disposal of controlled substances.

5. The client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory test should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Fibrinogen level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) is crucial when a client is on warfarin therapy. These tests assess the clotting ability of the blood and help determine the appropriate dosage of warfarin to prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting events. PT and INR values within the therapeutic range indicate the effectiveness of warfarin in managing atrial fibrillation. Choice B, activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy; it is more commonly used to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Choice C, complete blood count (CBC), does not directly assess the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. Choice D, fibrinogen level, is not a primary test for monitoring warfarin therapy; it is more relevant in assessing conditions like disseminated intravascular coagulation.

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