ATI LPN
Pharmacology for LPN
1. The client with a new prescription for warfarin (Coumadin) is receiving teaching from the LPN/LVN. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the medication?
- A. I will avoid eating foods high in vitamin K, like spinach and broccoli.
- B. I will take aspirin instead of acetaminophen for headaches while on this medication.
- C. I can stop taking the medication once my symptoms improve.
- D. I will double my dose if I miss a dose to catch up.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Clients prescribed with warfarin (Coumadin) need to maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K and avoid sudden increases in foods rich in vitamin K as it can interfere with the effectiveness of the medication. Choice A, 'I will avoid eating foods high in vitamin K, like spinach and broccoli,' is the correct statement indicating an understanding of the medication. This choice demonstrates knowledge of the importance of consistent vitamin K intake to prevent fluctuations in warfarin's effectiveness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B suggests a substitution that is not advised without consulting a healthcare provider. Choice C is incorrect as stopping warfarin suddenly can lead to serious health risks. Choice D is unsafe and incorrect since doubling the dose is not the correct action if a dose is missed.
2. A client has a new prescription for enalapril. Which of the following adverse effects should the client be instructed to monitor and report?
- A. Frequent urination
- B. Tremors
- C. Dry mouth
- D. Persistent cough
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Persistent cough. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, is known to commonly cause a persistent cough as an adverse effect due to its effect on bradykinin levels. Clients should be instructed to monitor for a persistent cough and report it promptly to their healthcare provider for further evaluation and possible medication adjustment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they are not commonly associated with enalapril use and are not typical adverse effects of ACE inhibitors.
3. The nurse is assisting in the care of a client with a history of angina pectoris who is receiving nitroglycerin patches. Which instruction should the nurse reinforce with the client?
- A. Apply the patch to a different site each time.
- B. Remove the patch at night to prevent tolerance.
- C. Use more than one patch if chest pain occurs.
- D. Shower with caution while wearing the patch.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Removing the nitroglycerin patch at night is crucial to prevent the development of tolerance. Tolerance can occur when the body becomes accustomed to a constant level of the medication, reducing its effectiveness. By removing the patch at night, the client experiences a drug-free period, which helps prevent tolerance and maintains the effectiveness of the nitroglycerin for angina relief. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because applying the patch to a different site each time helps prevent skin irritation, using more than one patch is not recommended unless instructed by the healthcare provider, and showering with caution is important to prevent dislodging the patch, but it is not the most critical instruction to prevent tolerance development.
4. A client with a history of angina pectoris complains of substernal chest pain. The nurse checks the client's blood pressure and administers nitroglycerin 0.4 mg sublingually. Five minutes later, the client is still experiencing chest pain. If the blood pressure is still stable, what should the nurse do next?
- A. Administer another nitroglycerin tablet.
- B. Apply 1 to 3 L/minute of oxygen via nasal cannula.
- C. Call for a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) to be performed.
- D. Wait an additional 5 minutes, then give a second nitroglycerin tablet.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client with angina pectoris continues to experience chest pain despite initial nitroglycerin administration and stable blood pressure, the appropriate next step is to administer another nitroglycerin tablet. This helps to further dilate coronary arteries, improving blood flow to the heart muscle and relieving chest pain. Applying oxygen via nasal cannula (Choice B) may be necessary if the client displays signs of respiratory distress or hypoxemia, but in this case, the priority is addressing the unresolved chest pain. Calling for a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) (Choice C) is important to assess for any changes in the client's cardiac status, but administering another nitroglycerin tablet takes precedence in managing the ongoing chest pain. Waiting an additional 5 minutes before giving a second nitroglycerin tablet (Choice D) may delay symptom relief and potentially worsen the client's condition if the chest pain persists.
5. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with hypertension who is receiving a beta blocker. The provider should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Hypertension
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Beta blockers are medications that can cause bradycardia by slowing down the heart rate. It is essential to monitor for this side effect in clients receiving beta blockers, as it can lead to serious complications such as decreased cardiac output and hypotension. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because beta blockers are not expected to cause tachycardia (fast heart rate), hypertension (high blood pressure), or hyperglycemia (high blood sugar levels).
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