Nursing Elites

1. The client with a diagnosis of heart failure is prescribed spironolactone (Aldactone). Which laboratory value should be monitored closely by the nurse?

• A. Serum calcium
• B. Serum potassium
• C. Serum sodium
• D. Serum glucose

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which can lead to hyperkalemia. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to prevent adverse effects associated with high potassium levels, such as cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring serum calcium (choice A) is not directly related to spironolactone use. Serum sodium (choice C) and serum glucose (choice D) are also not the primary laboratory values to monitor when a client is prescribed spironolactone for heart failure.

2. A healthcare professional is reviewing laboratory results for a client who has been taking carbamazepine. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. WBC count 3,000/mm3
• B. Platelet count 150,000/mm3
• C. Hemoglobin 14 g/dL
• D. Serum potassium 4.5 mEq/L

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A WBC count of 3,000/mm3 indicates leukopenia, a serious side effect of carbamazepine. Leukopenia can increase the risk of infections due to decreased white blood cell count, which is important to report to the provider for further evaluation and management. Platelet count within normal range (choice B), hemoglobin level within normal range (choice C), and serum potassium level within normal range (choice D) are not directly associated with carbamazepine use and do not require immediate reporting as they do not indicate a serious adverse effect.

3. The healthcare provider assesses a client who has been prescribed furosemide (Lasix) for cardiac disease. Which electrocardiographic change would be a concern for a client taking a diuretic?

• A. Tall, spiked T waves
• B. A prolonged QT interval
• C. A widening QRS complex
• D. Presence of a U wave

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The presence of a U wave is often associated with hypokalemia, a possible side effect of diuretic therapy like furosemide. Hypokalemia can lead to U wave formation on an electrocardiogram, making the presence of U waves a concerning finding in clients taking diuretics. Tall, spiked T waves are typically seen in hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. A prolonged QT interval is more commonly associated with conditions like Long QT syndrome or certain medications, not specifically with diuretics. A widening QRS complex is usually seen in conditions affecting the conduction system of the heart, such as bundle branch blocks, rather than being directly related to diuretic use.

4. The healthcare provider is teaching a client with hypertension about lifestyle modifications. Which recommendation should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Limit alcohol consumption to one drink per day.
• B. Increase sodium intake to maintain blood pressure.
• C. Exercise vigorously for at least 30 minutes daily.
• D. Avoid high potassium foods like bananas.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Limiting alcohol intake is an essential lifestyle modification recommended for managing hypertension. Excessive alcohol consumption can raise blood pressure, so limiting it to one drink per day is beneficial in controlling hypertension. Alcohol moderation is a key part of a heart-healthy lifestyle for individuals with high blood pressure. Choice B is incorrect because increasing sodium intake can actually worsen hypertension by retaining water and increasing blood pressure. Choice C is incorrect because while exercise is important for overall health, moderate-intensity exercise is recommended for individuals with hypertension to avoid excessive strain on the heart. Choice D is incorrect because high potassium foods like bananas are actually beneficial for individuals with hypertension as they can help lower blood pressure.

5. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed theophylline. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor for that indicates toxicity?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Constipation
• C. Drowsiness
• D. Tremors

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tachycardia. Tachycardia is a common sign of theophylline toxicity. The nurse should monitor the client for an increased heart rate, as it can indicate a dangerous level of theophylline in the body. Prompt medical attention is required if tachycardia is observed to prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because constipation, drowsiness, and tremors are not typically associated with theophylline toxicity. While theophylline can cause gastrointestinal upset or central nervous system effects, tachycardia is a more specific and serious indicator of toxicity that requires immediate attention.

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