Nursing Elites

1. The client with a diagnosis of heart failure is prescribed spironolactone (Aldactone). Which laboratory value should be monitored closely by the nurse?

• A. Serum calcium
• B. Serum potassium
• C. Serum sodium
• D. Serum glucose

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which can lead to hyperkalemia. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to prevent adverse effects associated with high potassium levels, such as cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring serum calcium (choice A) is not directly related to spironolactone use. Serum sodium (choice C) and serum glucose (choice D) are also not the primary laboratory values to monitor when a client is prescribed spironolactone for heart failure.

2. What preoperative instruction should the LPN/LVN reinforce to a client scheduled for a carotid endarterectomy?

• A. You will need to be NPO after midnight before the surgery.
• B. You should avoid deep breathing and coughing after the surgery.
• C. You will be able to eat and drink normally after the procedure.
• D. You can take all of your prescribed medications the morning of surgery.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct preoperative instruction that the LPN/LVN should reinforce to a client scheduled for a carotid endarterectomy is being NPO after midnight before the surgery. This instruction is essential to prevent aspiration and ensure a safe procedure. Avoiding oral intake helps reduce the risk of complications during anesthesia induction and the surgical process. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because avoiding deep breathing and coughing, resuming normal eating and drinking, and taking all prescribed medications the morning of surgery are not recommended preoperative instructions for a carotid endarterectomy.

3. A client in the emergency department is bleeding profusely from a gunshot wound to the abdomen. In what position should the nurse immediately place the client to promote maintenance of the client's blood pressure above a systolic pressure of 90 mm Hg?

• A. Place the client in a 45-degree Trendelenburg position to promote cerebral blood flow.
• B. Turn the client prone to apply pressure on the abdominal wound to help staunch the bleeding.
• C. Maintain the client in a supine position to reduce diaphragmatic pressure and visualize the wound.
• D. Put the client on the right side to apply pressure to the liver and spleen to stop hemorrhaging.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with profuse bleeding from a gunshot wound to the abdomen, maintaining the client in a supine position is essential to manage blood pressure. This position helps in reducing diaphragmatic pressure and allows for proper visualization of the wound, aiding in prompt assessment and intervention to control the bleeding and stabilize the client's condition. Placing the client in a 45-degree Trendelenburg position (Choice A) could worsen the bleeding by increasing intrathoracic pressure and venous return, potentially leading to further hemorrhage. Turning the client prone (Choice B) may not be feasible in this situation and can delay essential interventions. Placing the client on the right side (Choice D) does not address the immediate need to manage the bleeding and stabilize the client's condition.

4. A client with a history of angina pectoris reports chest pain after climbing stairs. What should be the nurse's first action?

• A. Administer oxygen.
• B. Administer nitroglycerin.
• C. Sit the client down and rest.
• D. Check the client's blood pressure.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for a client experiencing anginal pain, like chest pain after climbing stairs, is to sit the client down and have them rest. Resting reduces myocardial oxygen demand, which can help relieve anginal pain. Administering oxygen or nitroglycerin may be appropriate interventions after the client has been seated and rested. Checking the client's blood pressure is important but not the immediate priority when a client is experiencing anginal pain. Therefore, the first action should be to sit the client down and allow them to rest.

5. The healthcare provider assesses a client who has been prescribed furosemide (Lasix) for cardiac disease. Which electrocardiographic change would be a concern for a client taking a diuretic?

• A. Tall, spiked T waves
• B. A prolonged QT interval
• C. A widening QRS complex
• D. Presence of a U wave

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The presence of a U wave is often associated with hypokalemia, a possible side effect of diuretic therapy like furosemide. Hypokalemia can lead to U wave formation on an electrocardiogram, making the presence of U waves a concerning finding in clients taking diuretics. Tall, spiked T waves are typically seen in hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. A prolonged QT interval is more commonly associated with conditions like Long QT syndrome or certain medications, not specifically with diuretics. A widening QRS complex is usually seen in conditions affecting the conduction system of the heart, such as bundle branch blocks, rather than being directly related to diuretic use.

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