Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is reviewing the medication orders for a client with angina pectoris. Which medication is typically prescribed to prevent angina attacks?

• A. Aspirin
• B. Nitroglycerin
• C. Atenolol
• D. Simvastatin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nitroglycerin is the medication typically prescribed to prevent angina attacks. It works by dilating blood vessels, increasing blood flow, and reducing the heart's workload, hence relieving angina symptoms. Aspirin is often used to prevent blood clots, not specifically to prevent angina attacks. Atenolol is a beta-blocker used to manage high blood pressure and chest pain but is not typically prescribed to prevent angina attacks. Simvastatin is a statin medication primarily used to lower cholesterol levels and is not indicated for preventing angina attacks.

2. The client with a history of heart failure is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin). Which electrolyte imbalance increases the risk of digoxin toxicity?

• A. Hypernatremia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hypomagnesemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity as low potassium levels enhance the effects of digoxin on the heart, leading to toxicity and potential adverse effects. Hypernatremia (Choice A) is not directly associated with an increased risk of digoxin toxicity. Hypercalcemia (Choice B) does not increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. Hypomagnesemia (Choice D) can contribute to digoxin toxicity, but hypokalemia has a more significant impact on increasing the risk.

3. A client with hypertension is prescribed a thiazide diuretic. What instruction should the nurse reinforce to the client?

• A. Take the medication in the morning.
• B. Increase potassium intake in the diet.
• C. Weigh yourself daily.
• D. Limit fluid intake to 2 liters per day.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to weigh oneself daily. This instruction is important as daily weights help monitor fluid loss and are crucial for detecting early signs of fluid imbalance when taking a diuretic. Weighing daily allows for timely adjustments in treatment and helps prevent complications associated with fluid imbalance. Choice A is not directly related to the client's need for monitoring fluid balance. Choice B, although important for some diuretics, is not specific to thiazide diuretics. Choice D is not appropriate as limiting fluid intake without proper monitoring can lead to dehydration, especially when taking diuretics.

4. The client with a new prescription for warfarin (Coumadin) is receiving teaching from the LPN/LVN. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the medication?

• A. I will avoid eating foods high in vitamin K, like spinach and broccoli.
• B. I will take aspirin instead of acetaminophen for headaches while on this medication.
• C. I can stop taking the medication once my symptoms improve.
• D. I will double my dose if I miss a dose to catch up.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients prescribed with warfarin (Coumadin) need to maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K and avoid sudden increases in foods rich in vitamin K as it can interfere with the effectiveness of the medication. Choice A, 'I will avoid eating foods high in vitamin K, like spinach and broccoli,' is the correct statement indicating an understanding of the medication. This choice demonstrates knowledge of the importance of consistent vitamin K intake to prevent fluctuations in warfarin's effectiveness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B suggests a substitution that is not advised without consulting a healthcare provider. Choice C is incorrect as stopping warfarin suddenly can lead to serious health risks. Choice D is unsafe and incorrect since doubling the dose is not the correct action if a dose is missed.

5. What predisposing factor most likely contributed to the proximal end of the femur fracture in a 62-year-old woman who lives alone and tripped on a rug in her home?

• A. Failing eyesight leading to an unsafe environment
• B. Renal osteodystrophy from chronic kidney disease (CKD)
• C. Osteoporosis from declining hormone levels
• D. Cerebral vessel changes causing transient ischemic attacks

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most likely predisposing factor contributing to the proximal end of the femur fracture in a 62-year-old woman is osteoporosis resulting from declining hormone levels. Osteoporosis weakens the bones, making them more susceptible to fractures, especially in older adults, particularly women. In this case, the fracture can be attributed to the bone density loss associated with osteoporosis, which is a common concern in postmenopausal women. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to have directly contributed to the femur fracture in this scenario. Failing eyesight may increase the risk of falls but does not directly weaken the bones. Renal osteodystrophy affects bone health but is less common in this age group. Cerebral vessel changes causing transient ischemic attacks are related to vascular issues, not bone strength.

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