Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is preparing to administer an intravenous dose of potassium chloride to a client with hypokalemia. The nurse should monitor for which potential complication?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hypernatremia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When administering potassium chloride to a client with hypokalemia, the nurse should monitor for hyperkalemia. Potassium chloride supplementation aims to increase potassium levels in individuals with hypokalemia. However, excessive administration can lead to hyperkalemia, which can be a serious and potentially life-threatening complication. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent this adverse outcome. Hypokalemia (Choice B) is the condition being treated, so it is not a complication of treatment. Hypernatremia (Choice C) refers to high sodium levels and is not directly related to the administration of potassium chloride. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is an elevated calcium level and is not a common complication associated with potassium chloride administration in hypokalemia.

2. A client is taking haloperidol. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Tremors
• D. Tardive dyskinesia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tardive dyskinesia. Tardive dyskinesia is a serious side effect associated with the long-term use of haloperidol. It is characterized by involuntary movements of the face, tongue, and extremities. Early detection is crucial as tardive dyskinesia may be irreversible and should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because weight gain, dry mouth, and tremors are common side effects of haloperidol but are not as concerning as tardive dyskinesia. While they should still be monitored and managed, tardive dyskinesia requires immediate attention due to its potentially irreversible nature.

3. The healthcare provider is reinforcing dietary instructions to a client with coronary artery disease who has been prescribed a low-cholesterol diet. The healthcare provider should advise the client to choose which food item?

• A. Whole milk
• B. Oatmeal with fresh fruit
• C. Fried chicken
• D. Bacon and eggs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oatmeal with fresh fruit is the correct choice for a client with coronary artery disease on a low-cholesterol diet. Oatmeal is a heart-healthy option that is low in cholesterol and saturated fats. Fresh fruits are also a good source of essential nutrients and fiber. Choices A, C, and D are not suitable for a low-cholesterol diet. Whole milk, fried chicken, bacon, and eggs are high in cholesterol and saturated fats, which can be detrimental to individuals with coronary artery disease.

4. The nurse is assisting in the care of a client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is on oxygen therapy. Which action should the nurse take to ensure the client's safety?

• A. Set the oxygen flow rate to 4 liters per minute.
• B. Remove oxygen while the client is eating.
• C. Ensure the client wears a nasal cannula instead of a face mask.
• D. Maintain the oxygen flow rate at the lowest level that relieves hypoxia.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: For clients with COPD, too much oxygen can suppress their drive to breathe, leading to hypoventilation. Therefore, the nurse should maintain the oxygen flow rate at the lowest level that relieves hypoxia to prevent complications while ensuring adequate oxygenation. Setting the oxygen flow rate too high (Choice A) can be detrimental for the client with COPD. Removing oxygen while the client is eating (Choice B) can compromise oxygenation, which is essential even during meals. While nasal cannulas are commonly used, the choice of oxygen delivery device depends on the client's needs; there may be situations where a face mask (Choice C) is more appropriate.

5. A client has a new prescription for phenytoin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
• B. Avoid consuming dairy products.
• C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• D. Expect a metallic taste in your mouth.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed phenytoin is to avoid consuming dairy products. Dairy products can reduce the absorption of phenytoin. Taking the medication with a full glass of water (Choice A) is generally a good practice for oral medications but is not specifically required for phenytoin. Taking the medication on an empty stomach (Choice C) can lead to gastrointestinal upset, so it is not recommended for phenytoin. Expecting a metallic taste in the mouth (Choice D) is a possible side effect of phenytoin but is not a crucial instruction for the client to follow.

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