a nurse is assessing a client who is taking haloperidol which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider
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ATI LPN

LPN Pharmacology Questions

1. A client is taking haloperidol. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tardive dyskinesia. Tardive dyskinesia is a serious side effect associated with the long-term use of haloperidol. It is characterized by involuntary movements of the face, tongue, and extremities. Early detection is crucial as tardive dyskinesia may be irreversible and should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because weight gain, dry mouth, and tremors are common side effects of haloperidol but are not as concerning as tardive dyskinesia. While they should still be monitored and managed, tardive dyskinesia requires immediate attention due to its potentially irreversible nature.

2. A client with a history of coronary artery disease is prescribed atorvastatin (Lipitor). What side effect should the nurse instruct the client to immediately report?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Muscle pain or tenderness.' This can be a sign of rhabdomyolysis, a serious side effect of statins like atorvastatin (Lipitor). Rhabdomyolysis is a condition in which muscle breakdown releases a protein that can damage the kidneys. Therefore, it is crucial for the client to report any muscle pain or tenderness immediately to prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not typically associated with atorvastatin (Lipitor) use or indicative of a serious adverse effect that requires immediate reporting.

3. After returning the client to bed following a cardiac catheterization procedure with the left femoral vessel as the access site, the nurse places a sign above the bed instructing the client to remain on bed rest and in which position?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After cardiac catheterization via the femoral vessel, it is crucial to keep the head of the bed elevated no more than 15 degrees to prevent bleeding at the access site. This position helps maintain pressure on the femoral artery, reducing the risk of bleeding and complications post-procedure. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not provide the necessary pressure on the femoral artery to prevent bleeding, which is essential after a cardiac catheterization procedure with a femoral access site.

4. Why should the client diagnosed with rheumatic heart disease be advised to notify the dentist before dental procedures?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients with rheumatic heart disease are at risk for infective endocarditis, a serious infection of the heart lining or valves. They need prophylactic antibiotics before invasive procedures, including dental work, to prevent this life-threatening complication. While dysrhythmias with high-speed drills, adverse reactions to local anesthesia, and the risk of heart failure during stressful events are all concerns for clients with heart conditions, the primary reason for notifying the dentist before dental procedures in rheumatic heart disease is the need for prophylactic antibiotics to prevent infective endocarditis.

5. The client is receiving enalapril (Vasotec). The nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor that works by dilating blood vessels and reducing blood pressure. Therefore, monitoring for hypotension is crucial as it can be a potential adverse effect of this medication. Hypertension, tachycardia, and hyperglycemia are not typically associated with enalapril use. Hypertension is the condition enalapril is used to treat, so it would not be an adverse effect. Tachycardia is not a common adverse effect of enalapril. Enalapril does not typically cause hyperglycemia, as it primarily affects blood pressure regulation.

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