Nursing Elites

1. A client is taking haloperidol. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Tremors
• D. Tardive dyskinesia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tardive dyskinesia. Tardive dyskinesia is a serious side effect associated with the long-term use of haloperidol. It is characterized by involuntary movements of the face, tongue, and extremities. Early detection is crucial as tardive dyskinesia may be irreversible and should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because weight gain, dry mouth, and tremors are common side effects of haloperidol but are not as concerning as tardive dyskinesia. While they should still be monitored and managed, tardive dyskinesia requires immediate attention due to its potentially irreversible nature.

2. A client is admitted to the hospital with a venous stasis leg ulcer. The nurse inspects the ulcer expecting to note which observation?

• A. The ulcer has a pale-colored base.
• B. The ulcer is deep, with even edges.
• C. The ulcer has little granulation tissue.
• D. The ulcer has a brownish or 'brawny' appearance.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When assessing a venous stasis leg ulcer, the nurse should expect to note a brownish or 'brawny' appearance. This discoloration is often due to hemosiderin deposits. The correct answer is not A because venous stasis ulcers typically do not have a pale-colored base. Choice B is incorrect as venous stasis ulcers usually have irregular, shallow edges, not deep and even edges. Choice C is incorrect as venous stasis ulcers often have excess granulation tissue, not little granulation tissue. Recognizing the brownish or 'brawny' appearance is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment of venous stasis leg ulcers.

3. A client has a new prescription for sertraline. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should take this medication at bedtime.
• B. I may experience sexual dysfunction.
• C. I should avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
• D. I may experience weight loss while taking this medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Sexual dysfunction is a common side effect of sertraline. When the client mentions this potential side effect, it indicates an understanding of the teaching about the medication's effects. This response shows awareness of a significant adverse effect that the client should be informed about when starting sertraline. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking sertraline at bedtime, avoiding grapefruit juice, or experiencing weight loss are not key teaching points associated with this medication.

4. A client in the emergency department is bleeding profusely from a gunshot wound to the abdomen. In what position should the nurse immediately place the client to promote maintenance of the client's blood pressure above a systolic pressure of 90 mm Hg?

• A. Place the client in a 45-degree Trendelenburg position to promote cerebral blood flow.
• B. Turn the client prone to apply pressure on the abdominal wound to help staunch the bleeding.
• C. Maintain the client in a supine position to reduce diaphragmatic pressure and visualize the wound.
• D. Put the client on the right side to apply pressure to the liver and spleen to stop hemorrhaging.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with profuse bleeding from a gunshot wound to the abdomen, maintaining the client in a supine position is essential to manage blood pressure. This position helps in reducing diaphragmatic pressure and allows for proper visualization of the wound, aiding in prompt assessment and intervention to control the bleeding and stabilize the client's condition. Placing the client in a 45-degree Trendelenburg position (Choice A) could worsen the bleeding by increasing intrathoracic pressure and venous return, potentially leading to further hemorrhage. Turning the client prone (Choice B) may not be feasible in this situation and can delay essential interventions. Placing the client on the right side (Choice D) does not address the immediate need to manage the bleeding and stabilize the client's condition.

5. The LPN/LVN is assisting with the care of a client who has been diagnosed with a myocardial infarction (MI). Which laboratory test result would the nurse expect to see elevated within the first 24 hours of the client's admission?

• A. Serum troponin
• B. Serum creatinine
• C. Serum sodium
• D. Serum albumin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevated serum troponin levels are indicative of myocardial damage and are commonly used as a diagnostic marker for myocardial infarction. Troponin levels typically rise within a few hours of an MI and remain elevated for several days, making it a crucial test for early detection and monitoring of cardiac injury. Serum creatinine is not typically elevated in the acute phase of a myocardial infarction. Serum sodium and serum albumin levels are not directly associated with myocardial infarction and are unlikely to be elevated in the first 24 hours following an MI.

Similar Questions