Nursing Elites

1. When creating a care plan for a 70-year-old obese client admitted to the postsurgical unit following a colon resection, the client's age and increased body mass index put them at increased risk for which complication in the postoperative period?

• A. Hyperglycemia
• B. Azotemia
• C. Falls
• D. Infection

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Infection is a significant risk in obese, elderly clients due to decreased immunity and increased healing time, making them more susceptible to postoperative infections. Proper infection prevention measures should be a priority in the care plan for this client to minimize this risk.

2. A client with a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis is experiencing severe pain. Which medication is likely to be prescribed?

• A. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
• B. Ibuprofen (Advil)
• C. Methotrexate (Rheumatrex)
• D. Prednisone (Deltasone)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Methotrexate is commonly prescribed for rheumatoid arthritis to reduce inflammation and slow disease progression. It is a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD) that helps control symptoms and prevent joint damage in individuals with rheumatoid arthritis. While acetaminophen and ibuprofen are used for pain relief, they are not typically prescribed to address the underlying inflammation and disease progression associated with rheumatoid arthritis. Prednisone may be used for short-term symptom relief or during disease flares, but it is not a first-line treatment for rheumatoid arthritis.

3. A 45-year-old woman with occasional indigestion has had episodes of chest pain and dysphagia to both solids and liquids. An upper GI series and EGD fail to disclose any structural abnormalities. What is the most appropriate initial therapy?

• A. Sucralfate
• B. Proton pump inhibitor
• C. Prokinetic agent
• D. Benzodiazepine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's symptoms of chest pain and dysphagia suggest esophageal spasm, often related to underlying gastroesophageal reflux. The initial therapy should focus on acid suppression. Proton pump inhibitors are the preferred choice to reduce acid production and alleviate symptoms. If proton pump inhibitors are ineffective, other options like smooth muscle relaxants or antidepressants may be considered. A Heller myotomy is not indicated in this case as the patient does not have achalasia.

4. A client is on a mechanical ventilator. Which client response indicates that the neuromuscular blocker tubocurarine chloride (Tubarine) is effective?

• A. The client's extremities are paralyzed.
• B. The peripheral nerve stimulator causes twitching.
• C. The client clenches fist upon command.
• D. The client's Glasgow Coma Scale score is 14.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Tubocurarine chloride is a neuromuscular blocker that works by causing paralysis of skeletal muscles. Therefore, if the client's extremities are paralyzed, it indicates that the medication is effective in achieving the desired muscle relaxation necessary for mechanical ventilation. Choices B and C are incorrect as they suggest muscle activity, which would not be expected with the administration of a neuromuscular blocker. Choice D is unrelated to the effectiveness of tubocurarine chloride.

5. A client with newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes is preparing for discharge. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will take my insulin shots only when my blood sugar is high
• B. I need to follow a balanced diet and exercise regularly
• C. I should monitor my blood sugar levels regularly
• D. I need to take my medication as prescribed by my doctor

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In type 2 diabetes, insulin therapy is typically not the first-line treatment. Patients should follow their prescribed treatment plan, which may or may not include insulin. Taking insulin shots only when blood sugar is high can lead to uncontrolled glucose levels and complications. It is important to adhere to the prescribed medication regimen to manage diabetes effectively.

Similar Questions