Nursing Elites

1. Prior to elective surgery, a patient taking warfarin should receive which instruction regarding warfarin therapy?

• A. Continue taking warfarin until the day of surgery.
• B. Stop taking warfarin three days before surgery.
• C. Switch to aspirin before surgery.
• D. Stop taking warfarin one week before surgery.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Prior to elective surgery, a patient taking warfarin should be instructed to stop taking warfarin around one week before the procedure. This timeframe allows for the effects of warfarin to diminish, lowering the risk of excessive bleeding during surgery. Continuing warfarin until the day of surgery (Choice A) increases the risk of bleeding complications. Stopping warfarin three days before surgery (Choice B) may not provide enough time for the anticoagulant effects to subside. Switching to aspirin before surgery (Choice C) is not recommended as a substitute for warfarin in this context.

2. What instructions should the nurse give to a patient with cervical cancer who is planned to receive external-beam radiation to prevent complications from the effects of the radiation?

• A. Test stools for the presence of blood.
• B. Maintain a low-residue, high-fiber diet.
• C. Clean the perianal area carefully after every bowel movement.
• D. Inspect the mouth and throat daily for signs of thrush.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient with cervical cancer is receiving external-beam radiation, the radiation to the abdomen can affect organs in its path, such as the bowel, leading to complications like frequent diarrhea. Cleaning the perianal area carefully after each bowel movement is crucial to decrease the risk of skin breakdown and infection. Testing stools for blood is not necessary since inflammation associated with radiation may lead to occult blood in stools. Maintaining a low-residue diet is actually recommended to prevent bowel irritation. Radiation to the abdomen does not cause stomatitis, so inspecting the mouth and throat for thrush is not directly related to the effects of external-beam radiation in this context.

3. A client with chronic renal failure is scheduled to receive epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which laboratory result should the nurse review before administering the medication?

• A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• B. Creatinine clearance
• C. Hemoglobin level
• D. Serum potassium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to review the hemoglobin level before administering epoetin alfa (Epogen) to assess its effectiveness in stimulating red blood cell production. Hemoglobin level is a crucial indicator to monitor in clients with chronic renal failure receiving this medication. Choice A (Blood urea nitrogen) and Choice B (Creatinine clearance) are commonly monitored in renal failure but are not specifically relevant to assessing the effectiveness of epoetin alfa. Choice D (Serum potassium) is important to monitor due to potential imbalances in renal failure, but it is not directly related to evaluating the effectiveness of epoetin alfa.

4. A client with hypertension is receiving dietary education from a nurse. Which recommendation should the nurse include?

• A. Increase your intake of saturated fats.
• B. Limit your sodium intake to less than 2 grams per day.
• C. Avoid foods high in potassium.
• D. Consume at least three alcoholic beverages daily.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct recommendation for a client with hypertension is to limit sodium intake to less than 2 grams per day. High sodium intake can worsen hypertension by increasing blood pressure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing saturated fats (Choice A) can be detrimental to heart health and exacerbate hypertension. Avoiding foods high in potassium (Choice C) is not recommended as potassium-rich foods can actually be beneficial for managing blood pressure. Consuming three alcoholic beverages daily (Choice D) can also have a negative impact on blood pressure and overall health.

5. The patient described in the preceding question has a positive H. pylori antibody blood test. She is compliant with the medical regimen you prescribe. Although her symptoms initially respond, she returns to see you six months later with the same symptoms. Which of the following statements is correct?

• A. She is at low risk for reinfection with H. pylori
• B. A positive serum IgG indicates that eradication of H. pylori was successful
• C. The urease breath test is an ideal test to document failure of eradication
• D. Dyspepsia typically worsens with H. pylori eradication

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Reinfection with H. pylori is rare, and the persistence of infection usually indicates poor compliance with the medical regimen or antibiotic resistance. The serum IgG may remain positive indefinitely and cannot be used to determine failure of eradication; however, a decrease in quantitative IgG levels has been utilized to indicate treatment success. If available, either the stool antigen or urease breath test is ideal to document treatment failure due to their high sensitivity, specificity, and ease of performance. The relationship between dyspepsia and H. pylori is controversial, but generally, dyspepsia does not typically improve with H. pylori eradication.

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