ATI LPN
ATI Learning System PN Medical Surgical Final Quizlet
1. Prior to elective surgery, a patient taking warfarin should receive which instruction regarding warfarin therapy?
- A. Continue taking warfarin until the day of surgery.
- B. Stop taking warfarin three days before surgery.
- C. Switch to aspirin before surgery.
- D. Stop taking warfarin one week before surgery.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Prior to elective surgery, a patient taking warfarin should be instructed to stop taking warfarin around one week before the procedure. This timeframe allows for the effects of warfarin to diminish, lowering the risk of excessive bleeding during surgery. Continuing warfarin until the day of surgery (Choice A) increases the risk of bleeding complications. Stopping warfarin three days before surgery (Choice B) may not provide enough time for the anticoagulant effects to subside. Switching to aspirin before surgery (Choice C) is not recommended as a substitute for warfarin in this context.
2. What instruction should a patient with a history of hypertension be provided when being discharged with a prescription for a thiazide diuretic?
- A. Avoid foods high in potassium.
- B. Take the medication at bedtime.
- C. Monitor weight daily.
- D. Limit fluid intake to 1 liter per day.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for a patient with a history of hypertension being discharged with a prescription for a thiazide diuretic is to monitor weight daily. This is important because thiazide diuretics can cause fluid imbalances, and monitoring weight daily can help detect significant changes early. Choice A, avoiding foods high in potassium, is not directly related to thiazide diuretics. Choice B, taking the medication at bedtime, may vary depending on the specific medication but is not a universal instruction. Choice D, limiting fluid intake to 1 liter per day, is not appropriate as adequate hydration is important to prevent complications like hypokalemia.
3. What side effect should be monitored for in a patient with chronic heart failure taking spironolactone?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypernatremia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic commonly used in patients with heart failure. One of the potential side effects of spironolactone therapy is hyperkalemia, which is an elevated level of potassium in the blood. Hyperkalemia can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias, making it crucial for healthcare providers to monitor potassium levels closely. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because hypokalemia (low potassium levels), hyponatremia (low sodium levels), and hypernatremia (high sodium levels) are not typically associated with spironolactone use in patients with chronic heart failure.
4. A client with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) is prescribed atorvastatin (Lipitor). Which outcome indicates that the medication is effective?
- A. Increased blood pressure.
- B. Lowered cholesterol levels.
- C. Decreased heart rate.
- D. Improved liver function.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lowered cholesterol levels. Atorvastatin is a medication commonly prescribed to lower cholesterol levels, which is crucial in reducing the risk of further cardiovascular events, including myocardial infarction (MI). Monitoring cholesterol levels is essential to assess the effectiveness of atorvastatin therapy and its role in preventing future cardiac complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increased blood pressure, decreased heart rate, and improved liver function are not direct indicators of atorvastatin's effectiveness in a client with a history of MI.
5. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving chemotherapy. Which laboratory result indicates that the client is at risk for infection?
- A. Hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL.
- B. Platelet count of 150,000/mm3.
- C. White blood cell count of 2,000/mm3.
- D. Serum creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A white blood cell count of 2,000/mm3 is low and indicates leukopenia, which increases the client's risk for infection. Hemoglobin level and platelet count are not directly indicative of infection risk. Serum creatinine level is related to kidney function, not infection risk.
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