ATI LPN
Pharmacology for LPN
1. The nurse is caring for a client with hypertension who is prescribed a thiazide diuretic. The nurse should check which parameter before administering the medication?
- A. Serum potassium level
- B. Blood pressure
- C. Heart rate
- D. Serum sodium level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Before administering a thiazide diuretic to a client with hypertension, the nurse should check the blood pressure. Thiazide diuretics are prescribed to lower blood pressure, so assessing the client's blood pressure prior to administration helps to monitor the effectiveness of the medication and to ensure the client's safety. Checking the serum potassium level (Choice A), heart rate (Choice C), or serum sodium level (Choice D) are also important parameters in the care of a client on a thiazide diuretic, but the priority assessment before administering the medication is the blood pressure to evaluate the drug's effectiveness in managing hypertension.
2. A client has a new prescription for metformin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication with food.
- B. Monitor for signs of hyperglycemia.
- C. Increase your fluid intake.
- D. Expect a sweet taste in your mouth.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client starting metformin is to increase fluid intake. Metformin commonly causes gastrointestinal discomfort, and increasing fluid intake can help alleviate this side effect. Instructing the client to take the medication with food (Choice A) rather than on an empty stomach is recommended to reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Monitoring for signs of hyperglycemia (Choice B) is not directly related to metformin but rather to low blood sugar. Expecting a sweet taste in the mouth (Choice D) is not a common side effect of metformin.
3. A client has a new prescription for nitroglycerin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
- A. Store the medication in a cool, dark place.
- B. Take the medication at bedtime.
- C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- D. Take the medication at the first sign of chest pain.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct instruction to include in the discharge teaching for a client with a new prescription for nitroglycerin is to take the medication at the first sign of chest pain. Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator that helps relax blood vessels, increasing blood flow to the heart muscle and reducing the workload of the heart. Taking it at the onset of chest pain helps alleviate angina symptoms quickly and effectively. Storing the medication in a cool, dark place (Choice A) is not a critical instruction for this medication. Taking the medication at bedtime (Choice B) or on an empty stomach (Choice C) is not relevant to the administration of nitroglycerin for angina relief.
4. The client is receiving enalapril (Vasotec). The nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Hypotension
- C. Tachycardia
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor that works by dilating blood vessels and reducing blood pressure. Therefore, monitoring for hypotension is crucial as it can be a potential adverse effect of this medication. Hypertension, tachycardia, and hyperglycemia are not typically associated with enalapril use. Hypertension is the condition enalapril is used to treat, so it would not be an adverse effect. Tachycardia is not a common adverse effect of enalapril. Enalapril does not typically cause hyperglycemia, as it primarily affects blood pressure regulation.
5. A client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should monitor which laboratory test to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
- B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- C. Complete blood count (CBC)
- D. Fibrinogen level
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in a client with atrial fibrillation, the nurse should assess the Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) levels. These tests help determine the clotting ability of the blood and ensure that the client's anticoagulation levels are within the therapeutic range, reducing the risk of bleeding or clotting complications. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice B) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy. Complete blood count (CBC) (Choice C) provides information about the cellular components of blood but does not directly assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Fibrinogen level (Choice D) is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy; it reflects the level of fibrinogen in the blood, which is involved in the clotting process.
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