Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of angina pectoris reports chest pain after climbing stairs. What should be the nurse's first action?

• A. Administer oxygen.
• B. Administer nitroglycerin.
• C. Sit the client down and rest.
• D. Check the client's blood pressure.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for a client experiencing anginal pain, like chest pain after climbing stairs, is to sit the client down and have them rest. Resting reduces myocardial oxygen demand, which can help relieve anginal pain. Administering oxygen or nitroglycerin may be appropriate interventions after the client has been seated and rested. Checking the client's blood pressure is important but not the immediate priority when a client is experiencing anginal pain. Therefore, the first action should be to sit the client down and allow them to rest.

2. A client with myocardial infarction suddenly becomes tachycardic, shows signs of air hunger, and begins coughing frothy, pink-tinged sputum. The nurse listens to breath sounds, expecting to hear which breath sounds bilaterally?

• A. Rhonchi
• B. Crackles
• C. Wheezes
• D. Diminished breath sounds

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is exhibiting signs of pulmonary edema, which can occur as a complication of myocardial infarction. Crackles are typically heard in cases of pulmonary edema, characterized by fluid accumulation in the lungs. These crackling sounds are heard during inspiration and sometimes expiration and are an indication of fluid-filled alveoli. Therefore, when assessing the client with these symptoms, the nurse would expect to hear crackles bilaterally. Rhonchi, which are coarse rattling respiratory sounds, are typically associated with conditions like bronchitis or pneumonia, not pulmonary edema. Wheezes are high-pitched musical sounds heard in conditions like asthma or COPD, not commonly present in pulmonary edema. Diminished breath sounds suggest decreased airflow or lung consolidation, not typical findings in pulmonary edema.

3. The client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory test should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Fibrinogen level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) is crucial when a client is on warfarin therapy. These tests assess the clotting ability of the blood and help determine the appropriate dosage of warfarin to prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting events. PT and INR values within the therapeutic range indicate the effectiveness of warfarin in managing atrial fibrillation. Choice B, activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy; it is more commonly used to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Choice C, complete blood count (CBC), does not directly assess the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. Choice D, fibrinogen level, is not a primary test for monitoring warfarin therapy; it is more relevant in assessing conditions like disseminated intravascular coagulation.

4. The client with myocardial infarction should reduce intake of saturated fat and cholesterol. Which food items from the dietary menu would assist the nurse in helping the client comply with diet therapy?

• A. Cheeseburger, pan-fried potatoes, whole kernel corn, sherbet
• B. Pork chop, baked potato, cauliflower in cheese sauce, ice cream
• C. Baked haddock, steamed broccoli, herbed rice, sliced strawberries
• D. Spaghetti and sweet sausage in tomato sauce, vanilla pudding (with 4% milk)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Option C, which includes baked haddock, steamed broccoli, herbed rice, and sliced strawberries, is the most appropriate choice for a client with myocardial infarction looking to reduce saturated fat and cholesterol intake. This meal is low in saturated fats and cholesterol, making it a heart-healthy option that aligns with the dietary recommendations for such clients. Choices A, B, and D contain foods high in saturated fats and cholesterol, which are not suitable for a client with myocardial infarction trying to adhere to a diet therapy aimed at reducing these components.

5. A client with heart failure is prescribed an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. The nurse should reinforce which instruction?

• A. Take the medication at bedtime.
• B. Report a persistent dry cough.
• C. Increase potassium-rich foods in the diet.
• D. Avoid taking the medication with meals.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to report a persistent dry cough. ACE inhibitors can cause a common side effect of a persistent dry cough, which should be promptly reported to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and possible medication adjustment. Option A is incorrect because the timing of ACE inhibitor administration is usually not specified to be at bedtime. Option C is incorrect as increasing potassium-rich foods can lead to hyperkalemia when taking ACE inhibitors. Option D is incorrect because ACE inhibitors can be taken with or without food.

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