the nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who is receiving furosemide lasix the nurse should monitor for which potential side effect
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

Pharmacology for LPN

1. The client is receiving furosemide (Lasix) for heart failure. What potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, causes potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial because hypokalemia can result in cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause hyperkalemia, hypernatremia, or hypoglycemia.

2. Before administering a calcium channel blocker to a client with hypertension, what parameter should the nurse check?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Before administering a calcium channel blocker to a client with hypertension, the nurse should check the client's blood pressure. Calcium channel blockers are prescribed to lower blood pressure, so it is essential to assess the current blood pressure to ensure safe administration and monitor the medication's effectiveness. Checking the serum calcium level (Choice A) is not necessary before administering a calcium channel blocker, as it does not directly impact the drug's action. Monitoring the apical pulse (Choice B) is important for other types of medications like beta-blockers, not specifically for calcium channel blockers. Assessing the respiratory rate (Choice D) is not directly related to administering calcium channel blockers for hypertension.

3. The LPN/LVN is assisting in caring for a client in the telemetry unit and is monitoring the client for cardiac changes indicative of hypokalemia. Which occurrence noted on the cardiac monitor indicates the presence of hypokalemia?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: ST-segment depression can indicate hypokalemia, affecting the heart's electrical conduction. Hypokalemia leads to alterations in the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential, resulting in ST-segment depression on the ECG. Tall, peaked T waves are indicative of hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. A prolonged P-R interval is more commonly associated with first-degree heart block. Widening of the QRS complex is typically seen in conditions like bundle branch blocks or ventricular tachycardia, not specifically in hypokalemia.

4. A client with heart failure is prescribed an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. What instruction should the nurse reinforce to the client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A persistent dry cough is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors and should be reported to the healthcare provider. This symptom can indicate a potential issue with the medication that may require adjustment or discontinuation. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking the medication at bedtime or with meals is not a specific instruction for ACE inhibitors. Increasing potassium-rich foods in the diet is not directly related to ACE inhibitor therapy and may not be suitable for all patients.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who is taking hydrocodone. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Respiratory depression. Hydrocodone is an opioid medication that can cause respiratory depression, a serious side effect that should be reported immediately to the healthcare provider. Constipation, sedation, and dry mouth are common side effects of hydrocodone but are not as concerning as respiratory depression. Constipation can be managed with lifestyle modifications and medications, sedation may improve with time or dosage adjustments, and dry mouth is a common and usually benign side effect.

Similar Questions

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The healthcare professional is caring for a client who has just returned from a cardiac catheterization. The healthcare professional should prioritize which assessment?
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