Nursing Elites

1. The client is receiving furosemide (Lasix) for heart failure. What potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hypernatremia
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, causes potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial because hypokalemia can result in cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause hyperkalemia, hypernatremia, or hypoglycemia.

2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has been taking levodopa/carbidopa for Parkinson's disease. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. Dry mouth
• B. Urinary retention
• C. Bradykinesia
• D. Dizziness

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Bradykinesia is a cardinal symptom of Parkinson's disease characterized by slowness of movement. An increase in bradykinesia may indicate a decline in the client's condition and the need for adjustments in their medication regimen. Therefore, the healthcare professional should promptly report this finding to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and D are not directly related to the client's Parkinson's disease or the medication levodopa/carbidopa. Dry mouth is a common side effect of many medications, including anticholinergics, but not specifically levodopa/carbidopa. Urinary retention and dizziness are also not typically associated with levodopa/carbidopa use for Parkinson's disease.

3. A client is prescribed clopidogrel. What laboratory result should be monitored by the nurse?

• A. White blood cell count
• B. Creatinine
• C. Blood glucose
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client is prescribed clopidogrel, monitoring the platelet count is essential. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that works by preventing blood clots. Monitoring the platelet count is crucial in assessing the risk of thrombocytopenia, a potential side effect of clopidogrel. Monitoring white blood cell count, creatinine, or blood glucose is not directly related to the action or side effects of clopidogrel, making choices A, B, and C incorrect.

4. A healthcare provider is assisting in the care of a client who is having central venous pressure (CVP) measurements taken. The healthcare provider should assist by placing the bed in which position for the reading?

• A. Flat
• B. Semi-Fowler's
• C. Trendelenburg
• D. Reverse Trendelenburg

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Central venous pressure (CVP) measurements are most accurate when the client is lying flat, as this allows for a consistent baseline. Placing the bed flat ensures that the hydrostatic pressure within the vena cava is not affected by the client's position, providing a more precise reading. Choice B (Semi-Fowler's) elevates the head of the bed at a 30-45 degree angle, which could affect the accuracy of CVP readings. Choices C (Trendelenburg) and D (Reverse Trendelenburg) involve extreme positions that would not be suitable for obtaining accurate CVP measurements.

5. The client has atrial fibrillation and is receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Which laboratory test should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of the warfarin therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Fibrinogen levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring the Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) is crucial for assessing the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. These tests help determine the clotting ability of the blood and ensure that the client is within the desired therapeutic range to prevent clotting events or bleeding complications. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice B) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin. Complete blood count (CBC) (Choice C) and fibrinogen levels (Choice D) do not directly assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in the same way that PT and INR do.

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