ATI LPN
Pharmacology for LPN
1. The client is receiving furosemide (Lasix) for heart failure. What potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hypernatremia
- D. Hypoglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, causes potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial because hypokalemia can result in cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause hyperkalemia, hypernatremia, or hypoglycemia.
2. A client who had a myocardial infarction (MI) two days ago reports chest pain radiating to the left arm. What should the nurse do immediately?
- A. Administer morphine
- B. Obtain an electrocardiogram (ECG)
- C. Apply oxygen via nasal cannula
- D. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Obtaining an ECG is crucial in this situation because it helps in assessing for potential complications, such as a recurrent MI or ongoing ischemia. This diagnostic test provides valuable information to guide further interventions and treatment. Administering morphine, oxygen, or nitroglycerin may be necessary but obtaining an ECG takes precedence to evaluate the cardiac status and determine the appropriate course of action. Administering morphine without assessing the current cardiac status through an ECG can mask important diagnostic clues. Applying oxygen and administering nitroglycerin are supportive measures that can follow the ECG to address potential hypoxia and ischemic pain relief, respectively.
3. A client admitted with coronary artery disease (CAD) reports dyspnea at rest. What intervention should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Providing a walker to aid in ambulation
- B. Elevating the head of the bed to at least 45 degrees
- C. Performing continuous monitoring of oxygen saturation
- D. Placing an oxygen cannula at the bedside for use if needed
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a client with coronary artery disease (CAD) experiencing dyspnea at rest, the priority intervention should be to elevate the head of the bed to at least 45 degrees. This position helps reduce the work of breathing, optimizes lung expansion, and can alleviate symptoms of dyspnea by improving oxygenation and ventilation. Providing a walker for ambulation, monitoring oxygen saturation, and having an oxygen cannula at the bedside are important interventions but not the priority when the client is experiencing dyspnea at rest. Elevating the head of the bed is crucial to improve respiratory function and should be prioritized in this situation.
4. The client's B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) level is 691 pg/mL. Which intervention should the nurse implement when providing care for the client?
- A. Take daily weights and monitor trends.
- B. Encourage fluid intake to improve hydration.
- C. Elevate the legs above the level of the heart.
- D. Position the client supine with the head of the bed at 30 degrees.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Elevated BNP levels are indicative of heart failure, which often causes fluid retention and weight gain. Taking daily weights and monitoring trends allows the nurse to assess for changes in fluid status. This intervention helps in evaluating the effectiveness of the treatment plan and identifying worsening heart failure symptoms early. Encouraging fluid intake (Choice B) might exacerbate fluid overload in a client with elevated BNP levels. Elevating the legs (Choice C) and positioning the client supine with the head of the bed at 30 degrees (Choice D) are interventions more suitable for clients with hypotension, not specifically indicated for managing elevated BNP levels.
5. What predisposing factor most likely contributed to the proximal end of the femur fracture in a 62-year-old woman who lives alone and tripped on a rug in her home?
- A. Failing eyesight leading to an unsafe environment
- B. Renal osteodystrophy from chronic kidney disease (CKD)
- C. Osteoporosis from declining hormone levels
- D. Cerebral vessel changes causing transient ischemic attacks
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most likely predisposing factor contributing to the proximal end of the femur fracture in a 62-year-old woman is osteoporosis resulting from declining hormone levels. Osteoporosis weakens the bones, making them more susceptible to fractures, especially in older adults, particularly women. In this case, the fracture can be attributed to the bone density loss associated with osteoporosis, which is a common concern in postmenopausal women. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to have directly contributed to the femur fracture in this scenario. Failing eyesight may increase the risk of falls but does not directly weaken the bones. Renal osteodystrophy affects bone health but is less common in this age group. Cerebral vessel changes causing transient ischemic attacks are related to vascular issues, not bone strength.
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