the nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who is receiving furosemide lasix the nurse should monitor for which potential side effect
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

Pharmacology for LPN

1. The client is receiving furosemide (Lasix) for heart failure. What potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, causes potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial because hypokalemia can result in cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause hyperkalemia, hypernatremia, or hypoglycemia.

2. The nurse is assisting with the care of a client diagnosed with heart failure. Which finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A weight gain of 2 pounds in 2 days is concerning in a client with heart failure as it can indicate fluid retention and worsening of the condition. This finding requires immediate medical attention to prevent further complications. Increased urination at night (choice B) may be due to various reasons like diuretic use and is not an immediate concern. Mild shortness of breath on exertion (choice C) is expected in clients with heart failure and may not require immediate reporting. Decreased appetite and fatigue (choice D) are common symptoms in heart failure but are not as urgent as sudden weight gain.

3. The client has atrial fibrillation and is receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Which laboratory test should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of the warfarin therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring the Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) is crucial for assessing the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. These tests help determine the clotting ability of the blood and ensure that the client is within the desired therapeutic range to prevent clotting events or bleeding complications. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice B) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin. Complete blood count (CBC) (Choice C) and fibrinogen levels (Choice D) do not directly assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in the same way that PT and INR do.

4. A client is being taught about the use of an albuterol inhaler. Which of the following instructions should be included?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Shaking the inhaler well before use is a crucial step in ensuring proper medication delivery. This action helps disperse the medication evenly within the device, optimizing the effectiveness of each dose. It ensures that the client receives the intended amount of medication. The other options are incorrect: Option A suggests a fixed time interval for inhaler use, which may not be suitable for all clients and can lead to overuse. Option C, rinsing the mouth, is more relevant for corticosteroid inhalers to prevent oral thrush. Option D, using the inhaler while lying down, is not recommended as it may lead to improper drug delivery and is not the correct position for inhaler use.

5. The nurse is caring for a client who has undergone a coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery. Which action should the nurse take to prevent postoperative complications?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging the client to cough and deep breathe every 1 to 2 hours is crucial post-CABG surgery to prevent respiratory complications, such as atelectasis and pneumonia. These actions help to expand lung volume, clear secretions, and prevent the collapse of alveoli. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because maintaining the client in a supine position at all times can lead to complications like decreased lung expansion, keeping the client on bed rest for the first 48 hours may increase the risk of thromboembolism, and restricting fluid intake postoperatively can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances.

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