the nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who is receiving furosemide lasix the nurse should monitor for which potential side effect
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

Pharmacology for LPN

1. The client is receiving furosemide (Lasix) for heart failure. What potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, causes potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial because hypokalemia can result in cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause hyperkalemia, hypernatremia, or hypoglycemia.

2. A client has a new prescription for lisinopril. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to monitor their blood pressure daily. Lisinopril is known to cause hypotension, so monitoring blood pressure regularly is essential to detect any potential issues early on. Choice B is incorrect as lisinopril is usually taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect as lisinopril can increase potassium levels, so additional intake of potassium-rich foods may lead to hyperkalemia. Choice D is incorrect because grapefruit juice can interact with lisinopril, leading to adverse effects.

3. The client with heart failure is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin). The nurse should monitor the client for which sign of digoxin toxicity?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Bradycardia is a common sign of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can cause disturbances in the heart's electrical conduction system, leading to a slower heart rate. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client's heart rate for signs of bradycardia, which could indicate digoxin toxicity. Hypertension (Choice A), hyperglycemia (Choice C), and insomnia (Choice D) are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Therefore, they are incorrect choices for this question.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has been taking lisinopril. Which of the following findings should the provider report?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry cough. A dry cough is a common side effect of lisinopril. It is essential to report this to the healthcare provider as it may indicate the need to discontinue the medication to prevent further complications such as angioedema or cough that can persist for weeks to months after stopping the medication. Choice B, hyperkalemia, is not typically associated with lisinopril use; instead, it is a possible side effect of medications like potassium-sparing diuretics. Choice C, elevated blood pressure, would not be a concerning finding as lisinopril is often prescribed to lower blood pressure. Choice D, increased appetite, is not a common side effect of lisinopril and would not typically warrant immediate reporting.

5. A client is admitted with coronary artery disease (CAD) and reports dyspnea at rest. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse's priority intervention for a client with coronary artery disease (CAD) experiencing dyspnea at rest is to elevate the head of the bed. Elevating the head of the bed helps improve lung expansion and reduces the workload on the heart, aiding in respiratory effort and cardiac function. This intervention is crucial in enhancing oxygenation and optimizing cardiac output in individuals with CAD presenting with dyspnea. Administering oxygen (Choice B) is important but elevating the head of the bed takes precedence as it directly addresses the client's respiratory distress. Continuous ECG monitoring (Choice C) and applying a nasal cannula (Choice D) are relevant interventions but not the priority when a client with CAD reports dyspnea at rest.

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