the nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who is receiving furosemide lasix the nurse should monitor for which potential side effect
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

Pharmacology for LPN

1. The client is receiving furosemide (Lasix) for heart failure. What potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, causes potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial because hypokalemia can result in cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause hyperkalemia, hypernatremia, or hypoglycemia.

2. The client has been prescribed atorvastatin (Lipitor) for hyperlipidemia. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to provide to the client prescribed atorvastatin (Lipitor) for hyperlipidemia is to avoid drinking grapefruit juice while taking this medication. Grapefruit juice can interfere with the metabolism of atorvastatin, leading to an increased risk of side effects. It is crucial for the client to adhere to this instruction to ensure the effectiveness and safety of the treatment. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking the medication with breakfast, increasing dietary fiber intake, and avoiding foods high in potassium are not specific instructions related to atorvastatin therapy for hyperlipidemia.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has a new prescription for albuterol. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tachycardia. Albuterol is a bronchodilator medication commonly used to treat respiratory conditions such as asthma. Tachycardia, an increased heart rate, can be a potential side effect of albuterol, indicating excessive stimulation of the beta receptors. This side effect should be reported to the healthcare provider promptly to assess the need for further intervention or adjustment of the treatment plan. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because dry mouth, weight gain, and drowsiness are not typically associated with albuterol use and are less likely to require immediate reporting compared to tachycardia.

4. When educating a client about the use of risedronate to treat osteoporosis, which instruction should be included?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking risedronate to treat osteoporosis is to remain upright for 30 minutes after taking the medication. This is important to prevent esophageal irritation, as risedronate can cause irritation if it remains in contact with the esophagus. By staying upright, the medication is more likely to reach the stomach quickly and reduce the risk of irritation to the esophagus. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Drinking a full glass of water is recommended, not milk, to help with swallowing the medication. Risedronate should be taken on an empty stomach, not with meals, to ensure proper absorption. Additionally, avoiding lying down for at least 1 hour after taking the medication helps prevent esophageal irritation.

5. The client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which electrolyte imbalance is the nurse most likely to monitor for?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly causes potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. The nurse should closely monitor for decreased potassium levels in a client receiving furosemide to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias or muscle weakness. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hypernatremia (Choice B) refers to high sodium levels and is not the primary concern with furosemide. Hyponatremia (Choice D) is low sodium levels, which can occur but is less common than hypokalemia in clients taking furosemide.

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