Nursing Elites

1. The client is receiving furosemide (Lasix) for heart failure. What potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hypernatremia
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, causes potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial because hypokalemia can result in cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause hyperkalemia, hypernatremia, or hypoglycemia.

2. A client has a new prescription for atenolol. Which of the following instructions should be included?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Monitor heart rate daily.
• C. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
• D. Take the medication at bedtime.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor heart rate daily. Atenolol is a beta-blocker that can lead to bradycardia, a condition characterized by a slow heart rate. Monitoring the heart rate daily is essential to detect any abnormal changes promptly, allowing for timely medical intervention if necessary. Choice A is incorrect because atenolol can be taken with or without food. Choice C is irrelevant as atenolol does not interact with potassium-rich foods. Choice D is incorrect as atenolol is usually taken in the morning to help manage blood pressure throughout the day.

3. A client with a history of heart failure is admitted with a diagnosis of pulmonary edema. Which intervention should the LPN/LVN expect to assist with first?

• A. Administer a diuretic as prescribed.
• B. Place the client in a high Fowler's position.
• C. Prepare the client for intubation.
• D. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with pulmonary edema, placing them in a high Fowler's position is the priority intervention. This position helps to improve ventilation and oxygenation by decreasing venous return, reducing the workload on the heart, and facilitating fluid redistribution from the lungs. It is crucial to optimize respiratory function and oxygenation before considering other interventions like administering medications, preparing for intubation, or inserting a urinary catheter. Administering a diuretic, preparing for intubation, or inserting a urinary catheter may be necessary but should follow the priority of improving oxygenation through positioning.

4. In monitoring the effectiveness of warfarin therapy for a client with a history of atrial fibrillation, which laboratory value should the nurse monitor?

• A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• C. Platelet count
• D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are crucial laboratory values to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in clients with atrial fibrillation. These values help ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range and that the anticoagulant effect of warfarin is appropriate. Monitoring aPTT, platelet count, or ESR is not directly related to assessing the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in these cases.

5. When teaching a client about the adverse effects of simvastatin, which of the following findings should be included as an adverse effect?

• A. Tinnitus
• B. Muscle pain
• C. Diarrhea
• D. Facial flushing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Muscle pain should be included as an adverse effect when teaching a client about simvastatin. It can be a sign of rhabdomyolysis, a severe side effect associated with statins like simvastatin that involves muscle breakdown. Monitoring for muscle pain is crucial to prevent serious complications and ensure timely intervention. Tinnitus, diarrhea, and facial flushing are not typically associated with simvastatin use and are less common adverse effects compared to muscle pain.

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