ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology
1. Why should the client diagnosed with rheumatic heart disease be advised to notify the dentist before dental procedures?
- A. The client requires prophylactic antibiotics before treatment.
- B. The client may experience dysrhythmias with high-speed drills.
- C. The client may have an adverse reaction to lidocaine with epinephrine.
- D. The client may develop heart failure during stressful events.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Clients with rheumatic heart disease are at risk for infective endocarditis, a serious infection of the heart lining or valves. They need prophylactic antibiotics before invasive procedures, including dental work, to prevent this life-threatening complication. While dysrhythmias with high-speed drills, adverse reactions to local anesthesia, and the risk of heart failure during stressful events are all concerns for clients with heart conditions, the primary reason for notifying the dentist before dental procedures in rheumatic heart disease is the need for prophylactic antibiotics to prevent infective endocarditis.
2. A client is being educated by a healthcare provider about potential adverse effects of implantable progestins. Which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare provider include? (Select all that apply)
- A. Nausea
- B. Irregular vaginal bleeding
- C. Weight gain
- D. All of the Above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When educating a client about implantable progestins, it is important to discuss potential adverse effects. Nausea, irregular vaginal bleeding, and weight gain are common side effects associated with implantable progestins. Therefore, clients should be informed about these possibilities to ensure they are aware of what to expect and when to seek medical attention if needed. Choice D, 'All of the Above,' is the correct answer because all of the listed adverse effects (nausea, irregular vaginal bleeding, and weight gain) should be included in the client education. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they individually do not encompass all the potential adverse effects that the healthcare provider should discuss with the client.
3. A client at 28 weeks of gestation received terbutaline. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Fetal heart rate 100/min
- B. Weakened uterine contractions
- C. Enhanced production of fetal lung surfactant
- D. Maternal blood glucose 63 mg/dL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Terbutaline is a tocolytic medication that works by relaxing the uterine muscles, leading to weakened uterine contractions. This effect helps to prevent preterm labor. Therefore, the nurse should expect weakened uterine contractions in a client who has received terbutaline at 28 weeks of gestation. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Terbutaline administration would not directly affect the fetal heart rate, enhance fetal lung surfactant production, or cause maternal hypoglycemia.
4. The nurse is planning care for a 16-year-old with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA). The nurse includes activities to strengthen and mobilize the joints and surrounding muscles. Which physical therapy regimen should the nurse encourage the adolescent to implement?
- A. Exercise in a swimming pool.
- B. Splint affected joints during activity.
- C. Perform passive range of motion exercises twice daily.
- D. Begin a training program of lifting weights and running.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Exercising in a swimming pool is beneficial for adolescents with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis as it reduces stress on the joints while allowing movement and strengthening. The buoyancy of water supports the body, making exercises easier and less painful, while also providing resistance to strengthen muscles. This form of exercise can help improve joint mobility and overall function without causing excessive strain on the joints. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because splinting affected joints, performing passive range of motion exercises, or beginning a training program of lifting weights and running can potentially exacerbate symptoms and cause additional stress on the joints, which is not recommended for individuals with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis.
5. The healthcare provider is assessing a newborn who is 2 hours old. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Acrocyanosis
- B. Respiratory rate of 60 breaths per minute
- C. Grunting with nasal flaring
- D. Heart rate of 140 beats per minute
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Grunting with nasal flaring is a concerning sign of respiratory distress in a newborn that can indicate inadequate oxygenation. This finding requires immediate intervention to ensure the newborn's respiratory status is stabilized and to prevent further complications. Prompt assessment and appropriate intervention are crucial in such cases to prevent respiratory compromise and potential deterioration. Acrocyanosis, which is bluish discoloration of the extremities, is a common finding in newborns and usually resolves on its own. A respiratory rate of 60 breaths per minute and a heart rate of 140 beats per minute are within normal ranges for a newborn and do not indicate immediate intervention is needed.
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