Nursing Elites

1. Why should the client diagnosed with rheumatic heart disease be advised to notify the dentist before dental procedures?

• A. The client requires prophylactic antibiotics before treatment.
• B. The client may experience dysrhythmias with high-speed drills.
• C. The client may have an adverse reaction to lidocaine with epinephrine.
• D. The client may develop heart failure during stressful events.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients with rheumatic heart disease are at risk for infective endocarditis, a serious infection of the heart lining or valves. They need prophylactic antibiotics before invasive procedures, including dental work, to prevent this life-threatening complication. While dysrhythmias with high-speed drills, adverse reactions to local anesthesia, and the risk of heart failure during stressful events are all concerns for clients with heart conditions, the primary reason for notifying the dentist before dental procedures in rheumatic heart disease is the need for prophylactic antibiotics to prevent infective endocarditis.

2. A client with hypertension is prescribed metoprolol (Lopressor). The nurse should monitor the client for which side effect?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that works by slowing the heart rate. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for bradycardia, which is a potential side effect of metoprolol. Bradycardia refers to a heart rate that is slower than normal, and it can be a concern when administering medications like metoprolol that affect heart rate. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as tachycardia (fast heart rate), hypertension (high blood pressure), and hyperglycemia (high blood sugar) are not typically associated with metoprolol use. In fact, metoprolol is used to treat hypertension and certain heart conditions by lowering heart rate and blood pressure.

3. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• C. Platelet count
• D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are the laboratory values used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. These values help ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for anticoagulation. PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot, while INR standardizes PT results to minimize variations between laboratories. Monitoring these values is crucial to prevent complications such as bleeding or clot formation. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice A) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy. Platelet count (Choice C) assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not specific to warfarin therapy. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) (Choice D) is a non-specific marker of inflammation and is not used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy.

4. A client who had a myocardial infarction (MI) two days ago reports chest pain radiating to the left arm. What should the nurse do immediately?

• A. Administer morphine
• B. Obtain an electrocardiogram (ECG)
• C. Apply oxygen via nasal cannula
• D. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Obtaining an ECG is crucial in this situation because it helps in assessing for potential complications, such as a recurrent MI or ongoing ischemia. This diagnostic test provides valuable information to guide further interventions and treatment. Administering morphine, oxygen, or nitroglycerin may be necessary but obtaining an ECG takes precedence to evaluate the cardiac status and determine the appropriate course of action. Administering morphine without assessing the current cardiac status through an ECG can mask important diagnostic clues. Applying oxygen and administering nitroglycerin are supportive measures that can follow the ECG to address potential hypoxia and ischemic pain relief, respectively.

5. A client with a diagnosis of heart failure is prescribed spironolactone (Aldactone). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Serum calcium
• B. Serum potassium
• C. Serum sodium
• D. Serum glucose

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which can lead to hyperkalemia. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to prevent potential complications related to high potassium levels, such as cardiac arrhythmias. Therefore, close monitoring of serum potassium is essential for clients taking spironolactone. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because spironolactone does not directly impact serum calcium, sodium, or glucose levels significantly. While these values may be monitored for other reasons in a client with heart failure, they are not the primary focus of monitoring when spironolactone is prescribed.

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