Nursing Elites

1. Why should the client diagnosed with rheumatic heart disease be advised to notify the dentist before dental procedures?

• A. The client requires prophylactic antibiotics before treatment.
• B. The client may experience dysrhythmias with high-speed drills.
• C. The client may have an adverse reaction to lidocaine with epinephrine.
• D. The client may develop heart failure during stressful events.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients with rheumatic heart disease are at risk for infective endocarditis, a serious infection of the heart lining or valves. They need prophylactic antibiotics before invasive procedures, including dental work, to prevent this life-threatening complication. While dysrhythmias with high-speed drills, adverse reactions to local anesthesia, and the risk of heart failure during stressful events are all concerns for clients with heart conditions, the primary reason for notifying the dentist before dental procedures in rheumatic heart disease is the need for prophylactic antibiotics to prevent infective endocarditis.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who is taking hydrocodone. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Constipation
• B. Sedation
• C. Dry mouth
• D. Respiratory depression

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Respiratory depression. Hydrocodone is an opioid medication that can cause respiratory depression, a serious side effect that should be reported immediately to the healthcare provider. Constipation, sedation, and dry mouth are common side effects of hydrocodone but are not as concerning as respiratory depression. Constipation can be managed with lifestyle modifications and medications, sedation may improve with time or dosage adjustments, and dry mouth is a common and usually benign side effect.

3. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer a beta blocker to a client with hypertension. What parameter should be checked before administering the medication?

• A. Serum potassium level
• B. Apical pulse
• C. Oxygen saturation
• D. Pupil reaction to light

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Before administering a beta blocker, it is crucial to check the apical pulse. Beta blockers have the potential to slow down the heart rate, making it essential to assess the pulse rate to ensure it is within the safe range before giving the medication. Checking the serum potassium level (choice A) is important when administering certain medications, but it is not specifically required before giving a beta blocker. Oxygen saturation (choice C) and pupil reaction to light (choice D) are not directly related to monitoring parameters for beta blocker administration.

4. The LPN/LVN is reinforcing discharge instructions to a client who has been prescribed nitroglycerin sublingual tablets for angina. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will keep my nitroglycerin tablets in the original glass bottle.
• B. I will sit or lie down when I take a nitroglycerin tablet.
• C. I will take a nitroglycerin tablet every 5 minutes if chest pain persists, up to a total of 3 tablets.
• D. I can swallow the nitroglycerin tablet with a glass of water if it does not dissolve quickly.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets should not be swallowed; they must dissolve under the tongue to be effective. Choice A is correct as nitroglycerin tablets should be stored in their original glass container to prevent degradation. Choice B is correct as sitting or lying down when taking a nitroglycerin tablet helps prevent dizziness or fainting due to a sudden drop in blood pressure. Choice C is correct as taking a nitroglycerin tablet every 5 minutes for a maximum of 3 tablets is the correct protocol for managing angina symptoms.

5. The client is receiving anticoagulant therapy for atrial fibrillation. Which laboratory test should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Platelet count
• D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are essential laboratory tests to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy in clients with atrial fibrillation. These tests help ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range and are commonly used to assess the clotting ability of the blood. Monitoring PT and INR levels allows healthcare providers to adjust anticoagulant dosages as needed to prevent complications such as bleeding or thrombosis. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not anticoagulant therapy for atrial fibrillation. Platelet count assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not a direct indicator of anticoagulant therapy effectiveness. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a nonspecific marker of inflammation and is not used to monitor anticoagulant therapy.

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