ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology
1. Why should the client diagnosed with rheumatic heart disease be advised to notify the dentist before dental procedures?
- A. The client requires prophylactic antibiotics before treatment.
- B. The client may experience dysrhythmias with high-speed drills.
- C. The client may have an adverse reaction to lidocaine with epinephrine.
- D. The client may develop heart failure during stressful events.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Clients with rheumatic heart disease are at risk for infective endocarditis, a serious infection of the heart lining or valves. They need prophylactic antibiotics before invasive procedures, including dental work, to prevent this life-threatening complication. While dysrhythmias with high-speed drills, adverse reactions to local anesthesia, and the risk of heart failure during stressful events are all concerns for clients with heart conditions, the primary reason for notifying the dentist before dental procedures in rheumatic heart disease is the need for prophylactic antibiotics to prevent infective endocarditis.
2. In monitoring the effectiveness of warfarin therapy for a client with a history of atrial fibrillation, which laboratory value should the nurse monitor?
- A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- B. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
- C. Platelet count
- D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are crucial laboratory values to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in clients with atrial fibrillation. These values help ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range and that the anticoagulant effect of warfarin is appropriate. Monitoring aPTT, platelet count, or ESR is not directly related to assessing the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in these cases.
3. A client with a history of heart failure is admitted with a diagnosis of pulmonary edema. Which intervention should the LPN/LVN expect to assist with first?
- A. Administer a diuretic as prescribed.
- B. Place the client in a high Fowler's position.
- C. Prepare the client for intubation.
- D. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a client with pulmonary edema, placing them in a high Fowler's position is the priority intervention. This position helps to improve ventilation and oxygenation by decreasing venous return, reducing the workload on the heart, and facilitating fluid redistribution from the lungs. It is crucial to optimize respiratory function and oxygenation before considering other interventions like administering medications, preparing for intubation, or inserting a urinary catheter. Administering a diuretic, preparing for intubation, or inserting a urinary catheter may be necessary but should follow the priority of improving oxygenation through positioning.
4. A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of pericarditis. The nurse reviews the client's record for which sign or symptom that differentiates pericarditis from other cardiopulmonary problems?
- A. Anterior chest pain
- B. Pericardial friction rub
- C. Weakness and irritability
- D. Chest pain that worsens with inspiration
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Pericardial friction rub is a distinctive sign of pericarditis, characterized by a scraping or grating sound heard on auscultation, which helps differentiate pericarditis from other cardiopulmonary conditions. While anterior chest pain may be present in various cardiopulmonary issues, it is not specific to pericarditis. Weakness and irritability are nonspecific symptoms that can be seen in many conditions. Chest pain worsening with inspiration is more indicative of pleuritic conditions such as pleurisy or pneumonia, rather than pericarditis.
5. A client has a new prescription for amlodipine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication with food.
- B. Monitor blood pressure daily.
- C. Increase intake of potassium-rich foods.
- D. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor blood pressure daily.' When a client is prescribed amlodipine, it is essential to monitor their blood pressure regularly. Amlodipine is known to cause hypotension, so monitoring blood pressure helps ensure it stays within the desired range to prevent complications associated with low blood pressure. Choice A is incorrect because amlodipine can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect as increasing potassium intake is not a specific instruction related to amlodipine. Choice D is incorrect as grapefruit juice interactions are not typically a concern with amlodipine.
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