Nursing Elites

1. Which laboratory test should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy in a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

• A. Complete blood count (CBC)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Serum electrolytes
• D. Liver function tests

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the laboratory test monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy, particularly with heparin. It measures the time it takes for blood to clot, and monitoring aPTT helps ensure the therapeutic range is maintained to prevent clot formation and excessive bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a complete blood count (CBC) assesses overall health, serum electrolytes evaluate the body's electrolyte balance, and liver function tests assess liver health, none of which directly evaluate the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy for DVT.

2. A client has a new prescription for propranolol. Which of the following instructions should be included?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Monitor heart rate daily.
• C. Increase intake of potassium-rich foods.
• D. Avoid consuming dairy products.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor heart rate daily. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that can lower heart rate and blood pressure, so it is essential to monitor heart rate regularly to detect any signs of bradycardia, a potential side effect of the medication. Choice A is incorrect because propranolol can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect as increasing potassium-rich foods is not specifically required with propranolol. Choice D is also incorrect as there is no need to avoid consuming dairy products with propranolol.

3. When teaching a client who has a new prescription for metformin, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Monitor for signs of hyperglycemia.
• C. Increase your fluid intake.
• D. Expect a metallic taste in your mouth.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client starting metformin is to increase fluid intake. This is crucial to prevent gastrointestinal discomfort, a common side effect of metformin. Adequate hydration helps reduce the risk of gastrointestinal upset and ensures the medication is well-tolerated. Option A is generally true for metformin but is not as essential as maintaining proper hydration. Option B is important but not directly related to starting metformin. Option D is incorrect as a metallic taste in the mouth is not typically associated with metformin.

4. The LPN/LVN is assisting in caring for a client in the telemetry unit who is receiving an intravenous infusion of 1000 mL of 5% dextrose with 40 mEq of potassium chloride. Which occurrence observed on the cardiac monitor indicates the presence of hyperkalemia?

• A. Tall, peaked T waves
• B. ST segment depressions
• C. Shortened P-R intervals
• D. Shortening of the QRS complex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In hyperkalemia, tall, peaked T waves are a distinct ECG finding. These T waves can be seen as a result of increased serum potassium levels, affecting the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential. It is crucial for healthcare providers to recognize this ECG change promptly as hyperkalemia can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias and complications. ST segment depressions, shortened P-R intervals, and shortening of the QRS complex are not typically associated with hyperkalemia. ST segment depressions are more indicative of myocardial ischemia or infarction. Shortened P-R intervals may be seen in conditions like Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. Shortening of the QRS complex is associated with conditions affecting the conduction system of the heart, such as bundle branch blocks.

5. The LPN/LVN is assisting with the care of a client who has been diagnosed with a myocardial infarction (MI). Which laboratory test result would the nurse expect to see elevated within the first 24 hours of the client's admission?

• A. Serum troponin
• B. Serum creatinine
• C. Serum sodium
• D. Serum albumin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevated serum troponin levels are indicative of myocardial damage and are commonly used as a diagnostic marker for myocardial infarction. Troponin levels typically rise within a few hours of an MI and remain elevated for several days, making it a crucial test for early detection and monitoring of cardiac injury. Serum creatinine is not typically elevated in the acute phase of a myocardial infarction. Serum sodium and serum albumin levels are not directly associated with myocardial infarction and are unlikely to be elevated in the first 24 hours following an MI.

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