the nurse is caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis dvt who is receiving anticoagulant therapy which laboratory test should the nurse monitor t
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

Pharmacology for LPN

1. Which laboratory test should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy in a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the laboratory test monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy, particularly with heparin. It measures the time it takes for blood to clot, and monitoring aPTT helps ensure the therapeutic range is maintained to prevent clot formation and excessive bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a complete blood count (CBC) assesses overall health, serum electrolytes evaluate the body's electrolyte balance, and liver function tests assess liver health, none of which directly evaluate the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy for DVT.

2. A client with a history of coronary artery disease (CAD) is prescribed atorvastatin (Lipitor). The nurse should teach the client about which common side effect of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Muscle pain is a common side effect of statins like atorvastatin. It is important for the nurse to educate the client about this potential side effect, as it can indicate a serious condition called rhabdomyolysis, which requires immediate medical attention. Dry mouth, drowsiness, and diarrhea are not typically associated with atorvastatin use.

3. A client with a diagnosis of heart failure is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) and furosemide (Lasix). The LPN/LVN should closely monitor the client for which potential complication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes the loss of potassium in the urine, potentially leading to hypokalemia. Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity, as digoxin's effects can be potentiated in the presence of low potassium levels. Monitoring for hypokalemia is crucial to prevent adverse effects and maintain the therapeutic effectiveness of digoxin in clients with heart failure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause hyperkalemia, hypernatremia, or hyponatremia. Instead, it commonly leads to hypokalemia due to increased potassium excretion.

4. The healthcare provider is evaluating the effects of care for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which limb observations should the provider note as indicating the least success in meeting the outcome criteria for this problem?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Significant pedal edema, indicated by 3+, suggests ongoing or worsening venous insufficiency. This can be a sign that the care provided has not been effective in managing the deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and the associated complications. Monitoring and addressing pedal edema is crucial in the evaluation of DVT treatment outcomes and overall patient care. Choices B, C, and D are not indicative of the least success in meeting the outcome criteria for DVT. Slight residual calf tenderness, skin warmth, and a slightly larger calf girth do not necessarily point towards treatment failure or lack of improvement in DVT management.

5. When assessing a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), which laboratory value is most important for the nurse to monitor regularly?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most important laboratory value to monitor regularly in clients receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is glucose. TPN solutions contain high concentrations of glucose, which can lead to hyperglycemia. Monitoring glucose levels is crucial to detect and prevent hyperglycemia, a common complication associated with TPN administration. Albumin (Choice A) levels are not typically affected by TPN administration. Calcium (Choice B) and alkaline phosphatase (Choice D) are not directly impacted by TPN and are not the primary values to monitor in TPN therapy.

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